Achieve The Utmost Performance In JN0-351 Exam Pass Guaranteed [Q14-Q36]

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Achieve The Utmost Performance In JN0-351 Exam Pass Guaranteed

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NEW QUESTION # 14
You need to configure a LAG between your switches. In this scenario, which two statements are correct?
(Choose two.)

  • A. Member links are required to be contiguous ports.
  • B. Duplex and speed settings are not required to match on both participating devices.
  • C. Duplex and speed settings are required to match on both participating devices.
  • D. Member links are not required to be contiguous ports.

Answer: C,D

Explanation:
B is correct because duplex and speed settings are required to match on both participating devices. According to the Juniper Networks documentation1, all the interfaces in a LAG must have the same speed and be in full-duplex mode. This ensures that the LAG can operate as a single logical link without any performance or compatibility issues.
C is correct because member links are not required to be contiguous ports. According to the Juniper Networks documentation2, you can group any Ethernet interfaces on a switch into a LAG, regardless of their physical location or slot number. This provides flexibility and scalability for configuring LAGs on switches.


NEW QUESTION # 15
Exhibit.

You are using OSPF to advertise the subnets that are used by the Denver and Dallas offices. The routers that are directly connected to the Dallas and Denver subnets are not advertising the connected subnets.
Referring to the exhibit, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)

  • A. Enable the passive option on the OSPF interfaces that are connected to the Dallas and Denver subnets.
  • B. Create static routes on the switches using the local vMX router's loopback interface for the next hop.
  • C. Configure and apply a routing policy that redistributes the connected Dallas and Denver subnets.
  • D. Configure and apply a routing policy that redistributes the Dallas and Denver subnets using Type 5 LSAs.

Answer: A,C

Explanation:
Explanation
The routers that are directly connected to the Dallas and Denver subnets are not advertising the connected subnets. This can be resolved by redistributing the connected subnets into OSPF1.
Option C suggests to configure and apply a routing policy that redistributes the connected Dallas and Denver subnets. This is correct because redistribution allows routes from one routing protocol to be communicated to another, and in this case, it allows the connected subnets to be advertised through OSPF1.
Option D suggests enabling the passive option on the OSPF interfaces that are connected to the Dallas and Denver subnets. This is also correct because in OSPF, a passive interface is an interface that belongs to the OSPF router, but does not send OSPF Hello packets1. It's typically used on an interface that you don't want to use for OSPF adjacencies, but you still want to advertise its IP address1. Therefore, enabling passive interface can help in advertising the Dallas and Denver subnets.


NEW QUESTION # 16
Exhibit.

You want to enable redundancy for the EBGP peering between the two routers shown in the exhibit. Which three actions will you perform in this scenario? (Choose three.)

  • A. Configure routes for the peer loopback interface IP addresses.
  • B. Configure an MD5 peer authentication.
  • C. Configure BGP multihop.
  • D. Configure loopback interface peering.
  • E. Configure a cluster ID.

Answer: A,C,D

Explanation:
A is correct because you need to configure BGP multihop to enable redundancy for the EBGP peering between the two routers. BGP multihop is a feature that allows BGP peers to establish a session over multiple hops, instead of requiring them to be directly connected1. By default, EBGP peers use a time-to-live (TTL) value of 1 for their packets, which means that they can only reach adjacent neighbors1. However, if you configure BGP multihop with a higher TTL value, you can allow EBGP peers to communicate over multiple routers in between1. This can provide redundancy in case of a link failure or a router failure between the EBGP peers.
B is correct because you need to configure loopback interface peering to enable redundancy for the EBGP peering between the two routers. Loopback interface peering is a technique that uses loopback interfaces as the source and destination addresses for BGP sessions, instead of physical interfaces2. Loopback interfaces are virtual interfaces that are always up andreachable as long as the router is operational2. By using loopback interface peering, you can avoid the dependency on a single physical interface or link for the BGP session, and use multiple paths to reach the loopback address of the peer2. This can provide redundancy and load balancing for the EBGP peering.
C is correct because you need to configure routes for the peer loopback interface IP addresses to enable redundancy for the EBGP peering between the two routers. Routes for the peer loopback interface IP addresses are necessary to ensure that the routers can reach each other's loopback addresses over multiple hops2. You can use static routes or dynamic routing protocols to advertise and learn the routes for the peer loopback interface IP addresses2. Without these routes, the routers will not be able to establish or maintain the BGP session using their loopback interfaces.


NEW QUESTION # 17
Which statement is correct about the storm control feature?

  • A. The storm control feature is enabled in the factory-default configuration on EX Series switches.
  • B. The storm control feature is not supported on aggregate Ethernet interfaces.
  • C. The storm control configuration only applies to traffic being sent between the forwarding and control plane.
  • D. The storm control feature requires a special license on EX Series switches.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Option A is correct. The storm control feature is enabled in the factory-default configuration on EX Series switches12. On EX2200, EX3200, EX3300, EX4200, and EX6200 switches, the factory default configuration enables storm control for broadcast and unknown unicast traffic on all switch interfaces2. On EX4300 switches, the factory default configuration enables storm control on all Layer 2 switch interfaces1.
Option B is incorrect. The storm control feature does not require a special license on EX Series switches34.
Option C is incorrect. There's no information available that suggests the storm control feature is not supported on aggregate Ethernet interfaces.
Option D is incorrect. The storm control configuration applies to traffic at the ingress of an interface5, not just between the forwarding and control plane.


NEW QUESTION # 18
Which two mechanisms are part of building and maintaining a Layer 2 bridge table? (Choose two.)

  • A. learning
  • B. listening
  • C. blocking
  • D. flooding

Answer: A,D

Explanation:
Option B is correct. Flooding is a mechanism used in Layer 2 bridging where the switch sends incoming packets to all its ports except for the port where the packet originated1. This is done when the switch doesn't know the destination MAC address or when the packet is a broadcast or multicast1.
Option C is correct. Learning is another mechanism used in Layer 2 bridging where the switch learns the source MAC addresses of incoming packets and associates them with the port on which they were received23. This information is stored in a MAC address table, also known as a bridge table23.
Option A is incorrect. Blocking is a state in Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) used to prevent loops in a network2. It's not a mechanism used in building and maintaining a Layer 2 bridge table2.
Option D is incorrect. Listening is also a state in Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) where the switch listens for BPDUs to make sure no loops occur in the network before transitioning to the learning state2. It's not a mechanism used in building and maintaining a Layer 2 bridge table2.


NEW QUESTION # 19
Which statement is correct about graceful Routing Engine switchover (GRES)?

  • A. When combined with NSR, routing is preserved and the new master RE does not restart rpd.
  • B. GRES has a helper mode and a restarting mode.
  • C. The PFE restarts and the kernel and interface information is lost.
  • D. With no other high availability features enabled, routing is preserved and the new master RE does not restart rpd.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
The Graceful Routing Engine Switchover (GRES) feature in Junos OS enables a router with redundant Routing Engines to continue forwarding packets, even if one Routing Engine fails1. GRES preserves interface and kernel information, ensuring that traffic is not interrupted1. However, GRES does not preserve the control plane1.
To preserve routing during a switchover, GRES must be combined with either Graceful Restart protocol extensions or Nonstop Active Routing (NSR)1. When GRES is combined with NSR, nearly 75 percent of line rate worth of traffic per Packet Forwarding Engine remains uninterrupted during GRES1. Any updates to the primary Routing Engine are replicated to the backup Routing Engine as soon as they occur1.
Therefore, when GRES is combined with NSR, routing is preserved and the new master RE does not restart rpd1.


NEW QUESTION # 20
Which two statements are correct about generated routes? (Choose two.)

  • A. Generated routes cannot be redistributed into dynamic routing protocols.
  • B. Generated routes show a next hop in the routing table.
  • C. Generated routes appear in the routing table as static routes
  • D. Generated routes require a contributing route.

Answer: B,D

Explanation:
A is correct because generated routes require a contributing route. A contributing route is a route that matches the destination prefix of the generated route and has a valid next hop1. A generated route is only installed in the routing table if there is at least one contributing route available2. This ensures that the generated route is reachable and useful. If there is no contributing route, the generated route is not added to the routing table2.
B is correct because generated routes show a next hop in the routing table. A generated route inherits the next hop of its primary contributing route, which is the most preferred route among all the contributing routes2. The next hop of the generated route can be either an IP address or an interface name, depending on the type of the contributing route2. The next hop of the generated route can also be modified by a routing policy3.


NEW QUESTION # 21
You are receiving multiple BGP routes from an upstream neighbor and only want to advertise a single summarized prefix to your internal OSPF neighbors. This route should only be advertised when you are receiving these BGP routes from this neighbor.
In this scenario, which type of route should you create?

  • A. aggregate route
  • B. static route using qualified next hops
  • C. static route using the resolve feature
  • D. generate route

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
In this scenario, you should create an 1. Aggregate routes are used for advertising summarized network prefixes1. They help minimize the number of routing tables in an IP network by consolidating selected multiple routes into a single route advertisement1. This approach is in contrast to non-aggregation routing, in which every routing table contains a unique entry for each route1.
Therefore, option A is correct. Options B, C, and D are not correct because:
Static route using the resolve feature: This type of route uses the resolve feature to install a static route in the routing table only if a specific condition is met1. However, it does not provide the capability to summarize multiple routes into a single prefix.
Generate route: This type of route generates a route that is always present in the routing table and can be used to summarize routes. However, it does not have the capability to only advertise the route when specific BGP routes are being received from a neighbor1.
Static route using qualified next hops: This type of route allows for the specification of multiple next-hop addresses for a static route1. However, it does not provide the capability to summarize multiple routes into a single prefix.


NEW QUESTION # 22
Exhibit.

You have configured the four EX Series switches with RSTP, as shown in the exhibit. You discover that whenever a link between switches goes up or down, the switches take longer than expected for RSTP to converge, using the default settings.
In this scenario, which action would solve the delay in RSTP convergence?

  • A. The force-version must be removed.
  • B. The max-age must be increased to 20
  • C. The hello-time must be increased.
  • D. The bridge priority for EX-4 must be set at 4000.

Answer: A

Explanation:
The exhibit shows the configuration of RSTP on EX-4, which has the command force-version stp. This command forces the switch to use the legacy STP protocol instead of RSTP, even though the switch supports RSTP1. This means that EX-4 will not be able to take advantage of the faster convergence and enhanced features of RSTP, such as edge ports, link type, and proposal/agreement sequence2.
The other switches in the network are likely to be running RSTP, as it is the default protocol for EX Series switches3. Therefore, there will be a compatibility issue between EX-4 and the other switches, which will result in longer convergence times and suboptimal performance. The switch will also generate a warning message that says "Warning: STP version mismatch with neighbor" when it receives a BPDU from a RSTP neighbor1.
To solve this problem, the force-version command must be removed from EX-4, so that it can run RSTP natively and interoperate with the other switches in the network. This will enable faster convergence and better stability for the network topology. To remove the command, you can use the delete protocols rstp force-version command in configuration mode1.


NEW QUESTION # 23
Exhibit

You are troubleshooting an issue where traffic to 192.168.10.0/24 is being sent to R1 instead of your desired path through R2.
Referring to the exhibit, what is the reason for the problem?

  • A. R1's route is the best path due to the shorter AS path.
  • B. R2's route is not the best path due to loop prevention.
  • C. R1's route is the best path due to a higher local preference
  • D. R2's route is not the best path due to a lower origin code.

Answer: C

Explanation:
The exhibit shows the output of the command show ip bgp, which displays information about the BGP routes in the routing table1. The output shows two routes for the destination 192.168.10.0/24, one from R1 and one from R2.
The route from R1 has a local preference of 200, while the route from R2 has a local preference of
100. Local preference is a BGP attribute that indicates the degree of preference for a route within an autonomous system (AS)2. A higher local preference means a more preferred route2.
BGP uses a best path selection algorithm to choose the best route for each destination among multiple paths. The algorithm compares different attributes of the routes in a specific order of precedence3. The first attribute that is compared is weight, which is a Cisco-specific attribute that is local to the router3. If the weight is equal or not set, the next attribute that is compared is local preference3.
In this case, both routes have the same weight of 0, which means that they are learned from external BGP (eBGP) peers3. Therefore, the next attribute that is compared is local preference. Since R1's route has a higher local preference than R2's route, it is chosen as the best path and installed in the routing table3. The other attributes, such as origin code and AS path, are not considered in this case.


NEW QUESTION # 24
Which two events cause a router to advertise a connected network to OSPF neighbors? (Choose two.)

  • A. When an interface has the OSPF passive option enabled.
  • B. When a static route to the 224.0.0.6 address is created.
  • C. When a static route to the 224.0.0.5 address is created.
  • D. When an OSPF adjacency is established.

Answer: C,D

Explanation:
A is correct because when an OSPF adjacency is established, a router will advertise a connected network to OSPF neighbors. An OSPF adjacency is a logical relationship between two routers that agree to exchange routing information using the OSPF protocol1. To establish an OSPF adjacency, the routers must be in the same area, have compatible parameters, and exchange hello packets1. Once an OSPF adjacency is formed, the routers will exchange database description (DBD) packets, which contain summaries of their link-state databases (LSDBs)1. The LSDBs include information about the connected networks and their costs2. Therefore, when an OSPF adjacency is established, a router will advertise a connected network to OSPF neighbors through DBD packets.
D is correct because when a static route to the 224.0.0.5 address is created, a router will advertise a connected network to OSPF neighbors. The 224.0.0.5 address is the multicast address for all OSPF routers3. A static route to this address can be used to send OSPF hello packets to all OSPF neighbors on a network segment3. This can be useful when the network segment does not support multicast or when the router does not have an IP address on the segment3. When a static route to the 224.0.0.5 address is created, the router will send hello packets to this address and establish OSPF adjacencies with other routers on the segment3. As explained above, once an OSPF adjacency is formed, the router will advertise a connected network to OSPF neighbors through DBD packets.


NEW QUESTION # 25
What is a purpose of using a spanning tree protocol?

  • A. to tunnel Ethernet frames
  • B. to route IP packets
  • C. to eliminate broadcast storms
  • D. to look up MAC addresses

Answer: C

Explanation:
A broadcast storm is a network condition where a large number of broadcast packets are sent and received by multiple devices, causing congestion and performance degradation1. A broadcast storm can occur when there are loops in the network topology, meaning that there are multiple paths between two devices2.
A spanning tree protocol is a network protocol that prevents loops from being formed when switches or bridges are interconnected via multiple paths. It does this by creating a logical tree structure that spans all the devices in the network, and disabling or blocking the links that are not part of the tree, leaving a single active path between any two devices3.
By eliminating loops, a spanning tree protocol also eliminates broadcast storms, as broadcast packets will not be forwarded endlessly along the looped paths. Instead, broadcast packets will be sent only along the tree structure, reaching each device once and avoiding congestion3.


NEW QUESTION # 26
You implemented the MAC address limit feature with the shutdown action on all interfaces on your switch.
In this scenario, which statement is correct when a violation occurs?

  • A. By default, the interface will continue to send and receive traffic for all connected devices after a violation has occurred.
  • B. By default, the violation will automatically be cleared after 300 seconds and the interface will resume sending and receiving traffic for all learned devices.
  • C. By default, you must manually clear the violation for the interface to send and receive traffic again.
  • D. By default, devices that are learned before the violation occurs are still allowed to send and receive traffic through the specific interface.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
When the MAC address limit feature with the shutdown action is implemented on a switch, if a violation occurs, the interface is disabled and a system log entry is generated1. If the switch has been configured with the port-error-disable statement, the disabled interface recovers automatically upon expiration of the specified disable timeout1. However, if the switch has not been configured for auto-recovery from port error disabled conditions, you must manually clearthe violation by running the clear ethernet-switching port-error command for the interface to send and receive traffic again1. This explanation is based on the Enterprise Routing and Switching Specialist (JNCIS-ENT) documents and learning resources available at Juniper Networks1.


NEW QUESTION # 27
Exhibit

Which command displays the output shown in the exhibit?

  • A. show route forwarding-table family ethernet-switching
  • B. show ethernet-switching table extensive
  • C. show route forwarding-table
  • D. show ethernet-switching table

Answer: D

Explanation:
The output shown in the exhibit is a brief display of the Ethernet switching table, which shows the learned Layer 2 MAC addresses for each VLAN and interface1.
The command show ethernet-switching table displays the Ethernet switching table with brief information, such as the destination MAC address, the VLAN name, the forwarding state, and the interface name1.
The command show route forwarding-table displays the routing table information for each protocol family, such as inet, inet6, mpls, iso, and so on2. It does not show the Ethernet switching table or the MAC addresses.
The command show ethernet-switching table extensive displays the Ethernet switching table with extensive information, such as the destination MAC address, the VLAN name, the forwarding state, the interface name, the VLAN index, and the tag type1. It shows more details than the brief output shown in the exhibit.
The command show route forwarding-table family ethernet-switching displays the routing table information for the ethernet-switching protocol family, whichshows the destination MAC address, the next-hop MAC address, and the interface name3. It does not show the VLAN name or the forwarding state.


NEW QUESTION # 28
Which two statements are correct about tunnels? (Choose two.)

  • A. IP-IP tunnels are stateful.
  • B. BFD cannot be used to monitor tunnels.
  • C. Tunnel endpoints must have a valid route to the remote tunnel endpoint.
  • D. Tunnels add additional overhead to packet size.

Answer: C,D

Explanation:
Explanation
A tunnel is a connection between two computer networks, in which data is sent from one network to another through an encrypted link. Tunnels are commonly used to secure data communications between two networks or to connect two networks that use different protocols.
Option B is correct, because tunnel endpoints must have a valid route to the remote tunnel endpoint. A tunnel endpoint is the device that initiates or terminates a tunnel connection. For a tunnel to be established, both endpoints must be able to reach each other over the underlying network. This means that they must have a valid route to the IP address of the remote endpoint1.
Option D is correct, because tunnels add additional overhead to packet size. Tunnels work by encapsulating packets: wrapping packets inside of other packets. This means that the original packet becomes the payload of the surrounding packet, and the surrounding packet has its own header and trailer. The header and trailer of the surrounding packet add extra bytes to the packet size, which is called overhead. Overhead can reduce the efficiency and performance of a network, as it consumes more bandwidth and processing power2.
Option A is incorrect, because BFD can be used to monitor tunnels. BFD is a protocol that can be used to quickly detect failures in the forwarding path between two adjacent routers or switches. BFD can be integrated with various routing protocols and link aggregation protocols to provide faster convergence and fault recovery.
BFD can also be used to monitor the connectivity of tunnels, such as GRE, IPsec, or MPLS.
Option C is incorrect, because IP-IP tunnels are stateless. IP-IP tunnels are a type of tunnels that use IP as both the encapsulating and encapsulated protocol. IP-IP tunnels are simple and easy to configure, but they do not provide any security or authentication features. IP-IP tunnels are stateless, which means that they do not keep track of the state or status of the tunnel connection. Stateless tunnels do not require any signaling or negotiation between the endpoints, but they also do not provide any error detection or recovery mechanisms.
References:
1: What is Tunneling? | Tunneling in Networking 2: What Is Tunnel In Networking, Its Types, And Its Benefits? : [Configuring Bidirectional Forwarding Detection] : [IP-IP Tunneling]


NEW QUESTION # 29
A new network requires multiple topology support. You decide to use IS-IS in this situation. Which three protocol topologies are supported in this scenario? (Choose three.)

  • A. IPv4
  • B. multicast
  • C. IPsec
  • D. IPv6
  • E. anycast

Answer: A,B,D

Explanation:
Explanation
IS-IS (Intermediate System to Intermediate System) is a routing protocol that is designed to move information efficiently within a computer network12. It supports multiple protocol topologies, including IPv4, IPv6, and multicast12. Therefore, options C, E, and D are correct.


NEW QUESTION # 30
What are two characteristics of RSTP alternate ports? (Choose two.)

  • A. RSTP alternate ports provide an alternate higher cost path to the root bridge.
  • B. RSTP alternate ports provide an alternate lower cost path to the root bridge.
  • C. RSTP alternate ports are active ports used to forward frames toward the root bridge.
  • D. RSTP alternate ports block traffic while receiving superior BPDUs from a neighboring switch.

Answer: A,D

Explanation:
A is correct because RSTP alternate ports block traffic while receiving superior BPDUs from a neighboring switch. An alternate port is a backup port for a root port, which means it receives better BPDUs from another bridge than the current root port1. However, an alternate port does not forward any traffic, as it is in a discarding state2. It only listens to BPDUs and waits for the root port to fail. If the root port fails, the alternate port can immediately transition to a forwarding state and become the new root port1.
C is correct because RSTP alternate ports provide an alternate higher cost path to the root bridge. An alternate port is selected based on the same criteria as the root port, which are the lowest bridge ID, the lowest path cost, the lowest sender port ID, and the lowest receiver port ID3. However, an alternate port receives a higher cost BPDU than the root port, otherwise it would be the root port itself1. Therefore, an alternate port provides an alternate higher cost path to the root bridge than the root port.


NEW QUESTION # 31
You are concerned about spoofed MAC addresses on your LAN.
Which two Layer 2 security features should you enable to minimize this concern? (Choose two.)

  • A. static ARP
  • B. IP source guard
  • C. dynamic ARP inspection
  • D. DHCP snooping

Answer: C,D

Explanation:
A is correct because dynamic ARP inspection (DAI) is a Layer 2 security feature that prevents ARP spoofing attacks. ARP spoofing is a technique that allows an attacker to send fake ARP messages to associate a spoofed MAC address with a legitimate IP address. This can result in traffic redirection, man-in-the-middle attacks, or denial-of-service attacks. DAI validates ARP packets by checking the source MAC address and IP address against a trusted database, which is usually built by DHCP snooping1. DAI discards any ARP packets that do not match the database or have invalid formats1.
C is correct because DHCP snooping is a Layer 2 security feature that prevents DHCP spoofing attacks.
DHCP spoofing is a technique that allows an attacker to act as a rogue DHCP server and offer fake IP addresses and other network parameters to unsuspecting clients. This can result in traffic redirection, man-in-the-middle attacks, or denial-of-service attacks. DHCP snooping filters DHCP messages by classifying switch ports as trusted or untrusted. Trusted ports are allowed to send and receive any DHCP messages, while untrusted ports are allowed to send only DHCP requests and receive only valid DHCP replies from trusted ports2. DHCP snooping also builds a database of MAC addresses, IP addresses, lease times, and binding types for each client2.


NEW QUESTION # 32
Which three protocols support BFD? (Choose three.)

  • A. RSTP
  • B. BGP
  • C. FTP
  • D. LACP
  • E. OSPF

Answer: B,D,E

Explanation:
Explanation
BFD is a protocol that can be used to quickly detect failures in the forwarding path between two adjacent routers or switches. BFD can be integrated with various routing protocols and link aggregation protocols to provide faster convergence and fault recovery.
According to the Juniper Networks documentation, the following protocols support BFD on Junos OS devices1:
BGP: BFD can be used to monitor the connectivity between BGP peers and trigger a session reset if a failure is detected. BFD can be configured for both internal and external BGP sessions, as well as for IPv4 and IPv6 address families2.
OSPF: BFD can be used to monitor the connectivity between OSPF neighbors and trigger a state change if a failure is detected. BFD can be configured for both OSPFv2 and OSPFv3 protocols, as well as for point-to-point and broadcast network types3.
LACP: BFD can be used to monitor the connectivity between LACP members and trigger a link state change if a failure is detected. BFD can be configured for both active and passive LACP modes, as well as for static and dynamic LAGs4.
Other protocols that support BFD on Junos OS devices are:
IS-IS: BFD can be used to monitor the connectivity between IS-IS neighbors and trigger a state change if a failure is detected. BFD can be configured for both level 1 and level 2 IS-IS adjacencies, as well as for point-to-point and broadcast network types.
RIP: BFD can be used to monitor the connectivity between RIP neighbors and trigger a route update if a failure is detected. BFD can be configured for both RIP version 1 and version 2 protocols, as well as for IPv4 and IPv6 address families.
VRRP: BFD can be used to monitor the connectivity between VRRP routers and trigger a priority change if a failure is detected. BFD can be configured for both VRRP version 2 and version 3 protocols, as well as for IPv4 and IPv6 address families.
The protocols that do not support BFD on Junos OS devices are:
RSTP: RSTP is a spanning tree protocol that provides loop prevention and rapid convergence in layer 2 networks. RSTP does not use BFD to detect link failures, but relies on its own hello mechanism that sends BPDU packets every 2 seconds by default.
FTP: FTP is an application layer protocol that is used to transfer files between hosts over a TCP connection. FTP does not use BFD to detect connection failures, but relies on TCP's own retransmission and timeout mechanisms.
References:
1: [Configuring Bidirectional Forwarding Detection] 2: [Configuring Bidirectional Forwarding Detection for BGP] 3: [Configuring Bidirectional Forwarding Detection for OSPF] 4: [Configuring Bidirectional Forwarding Detection for Link Aggregation Control Protocol] : [Configuring Bidirectional Forwarding Detection for IS-IS] : [Configuring Bidirectional Forwarding Detection for RIP] : [Configuring Bidirectional Forwarding Detection for VRRP] : [Understanding Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol] : [Understanding FTP]


NEW QUESTION # 33
Exhibit.

Why is this OSPF adjacency remaining in this state?

  • A. An MTU mismatch exists between the OSPF neighbors.
  • B. An area ID mismatch exists between the OSPF neighbors
  • C. A hello interval mismatch exists between the OSPF neighbors.
  • D. A subnet mask mismatch exists between the OSPF neighbors.

Answer: A

Explanation:
The exhibit shows the output of the command , which displays information about the OSPF neighbors on a router1.
The output shows that the OSPF neighbor with the address 172.26.1.1 and the interface ge-0/0/3.0 is in the Exstart state1.
The Exstart state is the fourth state in the OSPF neighbor formation process, after Down, Init, and
2-Way states2. In this state, the OSPF neighbors establish a master-slave relationship and exchange database description (DBD) packets, which contain summaries of their link-state databases2.
The most common reason for OSPF neighbors to be stuck in the Exstart state is an MTU mismatch between the interfaces3. MTU stands for maximum transmission unit, which is the largest size of a packet that can be transmitted on a network segment4. If the MTU values of two OSPF neighbors are different, theymay not be able to exchange DBD packets successfully, as some packets may be dropped or fragmented due to their size exceeding the MTU limit3.
To solve this problem, you need to ensure that the MTU values of both OSPF neighbors are the same or compatible. You can use the command show interfaces to display the MTU value of an interface5. You can also use the command ping with the do-not-fragment option to test the MTU size between two routers. You can change the MTU value of an interface by using the command set interfaces interface-name mtu mtu-value in configuration mode5.


NEW QUESTION # 34
Exhibit

Referring to the exhibit, which statement is correct?

  • A. The local device is the root bridge for this RSTP topology.
  • B. The root bridge has not been elected for this RSTP topology.
  • C. The root bridge is using a bridge priority of 4k.
  • D. The local device is using a bridge priority of 4k.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
In a Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) topology, the root bridge is determined by the switch with the lowest bridge priority value12. If all switches have the same priority, then the root bridge is assigned to the switch whose MAC address's hex value is the lowest2. The default bridge priority value is 3276832. However, without the actual exhibit, it's difficult to definitively determine which device is the root bridge. But based on the options provided, if we assume that the local device has a lower bridge priority or a lower MAC address than other devices in the network, then it could be considered as the root bridge for this RSTP topology45.


NEW QUESTION # 35
Two routers share the same highest priority and start time.

  • A. The routers perform another DR election.
  • B. The router with the highest MAC address become the DR
  • C. The router with the highest router ID becomes the DR
  • D. In this situation, what is evaluated next when determining the designated router? The router with the lowest router ID become the DR.

Answer: C

Explanation:
According to the OSPF protocol, the designated router (DR) is the router that acts as the focal point for exchanging routing information on a multi-access network segment, such as a LAN1. The DR election process is based on the following criteria, in order of precedence1:
The router with the highest OSPF priority becomes the DR. The default priority is 1, and a priority of 0 means the router will not participate in the election.
If there is a tie in priority, the router with the highest router ID becomes the DR. The router ID is a 32-bit number that uniquely identifies a router in an OSPF domain. It can be manually configured or automatically derived from the highest IP address of a loopback interface or a physical interface.
If there is a tie in router ID, the router that was first to become an OSPF neighbor becomes the DR.
In your scenario, two routers share the same highest priority and start time. This means that they have equal chances of becoming the DR based on the first and third criteria. Therefore, the second criterion will be used to break the tie, which is the router ID. The router with the highest router ID will become the DR, and the other router will become the backup designated router (BDR), which is ready to take over the role of DR if it fails1.


NEW QUESTION # 36
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