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NEW QUESTION # 68
Which of the following best describes the policy/and or procedure that ensures records are kept in a database for a period of time and not deleted?
- A. Data retention policy
- B. Data classification policy
- C. Standard operating procedure
- D. Global regulation
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 69
A database administrator needs to ensure that a newly installed corporate business intelligence application can access the company's transactional data. Which of the following tasks should the administrator perform first?
- A. Open a new port on the database server exclusively for the business intelligence application.
- B. Create a new service account exclusively for the business intelligence application.
- C. Set up a nightly FTP data transfer from the database server to the business intelligence application server.
- D. Send the business intelligence administrator the approved TNS names file to configure the data mapping.
- E. Build a separate data warehouse customized to the business intelligence application's specifications.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The first task that the administrator should perform is to create a new service account exclusively for the business intelligence application. This will ensure that the application has the appropriate permissions and credentials to access the company's transactional data. The other options are either unnecessary, inefficient, or insecure. For example, building a separate data warehouse would require additional resources and time, setting up a nightly FTP data transfer would expose the data to potential breaches, sending the TNS names file would not guarantee that the application can connect to the database, and opening a new port on the database server would create a vulnerability for attackers. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain
2.0 Database Deployment, Objective 2.1 Given a scenario, install and configure database software and tools.
NEW QUESTION # 70
(Which of the following indexes stores records in a tabular format?)
- A. Non-clustered
- B. Columnstore
- C. Secondary
- D. Unique
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Columnstore. According to CompTIA DataSys+, a columnstore index stores data in a column-oriented, tabular structure, where each column of a table is stored separately rather than storing entire rows together. This design is particularly optimized for analytical and reporting workloads, which commonly scan large datasets and perform aggregations on specific columns.
In a columnstore index, data is logically still represented in a table-like (tabular) format, but physically organized by columns instead of rows. This allows the database engine to read only the required columns for a query, significantly reducing disk I/O and improving query performance. DataSys+ highlights columnstore indexes as a best practice for data warehousing, business intelligence, and read-heavy analytical queries.
Option B, a non-clustered index, stores a separate index structure that contains indexed column values and pointers to the underlying table rows. While it improves lookup performance, it does not store data in a tabular columnar format. Option C, a unique index, is a constraint-based index that enforces uniqueness on column values but does not define how data is physically stored. Option D, a secondary index, is a general term for indexes that are not primary and does not specifically describe column-based tabular storage.
Sys+ emphasizes understanding different index types and their appropriate use cases. Columnstore indexes are distinct because they physically reorganize data by columns, compress data efficiently, and support high-performance analytics. This makes them especially effective in scenarios involving large datasets and complex queries.
Therefore, the index type that stores records in a tabular, column-oriented format is the columnstore index
, making option A the correct and fully verified answer aligned with CompTIA DataSys+ objectives.
NEW QUESTION # 71
A server administrator wants to analyze a database server's disk throughput. Which of the following should the administrator measure?
- A. RPfvl
- B. Latency
- C. IOPS
- D. Reads
Answer: C
Explanation:
The factor that the administrator should measure to analyze a database server's disk throughput is IOPS.
IOPS, or Input/Output Operations Per Second, is a metric that measures the number of read and write operations that a disk can perform in one second. IOPS indicates the performance or speed of a disk and how well it can handle multiple requests or transactions. Higher IOPS means higher disk throughput and lower latency. IOPS can be affected by various factors, such as disk type, size, speed, cache, RAID level, etc. The other options are either not related or not sufficient for this purpose. For example, RPfvl is not a valid acronym or metric; latency is the time delay between a request and a response; reads are the number of read operations performed by a disk. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 3.0 Database Management and Maintenance, Objective 3.2 Given a scenario, monitor database performance.
NEW QUESTION # 72
Which of the following best describes the function of a wildcard in the WHEREclause?
- A. An exact match is necessary in a SELECTstatement.
- B. An exact match is not possible in a CREATEstatement.
- C. An exact match is necessary in a CREATEstatement.
- D. An exact match is not possible in a SELECTstatement.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A wildcard in the WHERE clause allows pattern matching instead of requiring an exact match when filtering records in a SELECT statement.
NEW QUESTION # 73
(A business analyst queries the same few tables every quarter and does not want to write new SQL code every time. Which of the following would best support the business analyst's needs and allow the database administrator to optimize disk space?)
- A. Table
- B. Function
- C. View
- D. Stored procedure
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. View. CompTIA DataSys+ documentation explains that views are virtual tables created from stored SQL queries that present data from one or more underlying tables without physically storing the data themselves. This makes views an ideal solution when users repeatedly query the same datasets and want consistent results without rewriting SQL statements.
In this scenario, the business analyst runs the same queries every quarter. By using a view, the analyst can simply query the view as if it were a table, eliminating the need to re-create complex SQL joins, filters, or aggregations each time. From a usability standpoint, views simplify access to data and reduce the likelihood of query errors, which aligns with DataSys+ objectives related to usability and abstraction.
From the database administrator's perspective, views also help optimize disk space. Because views do not store data physically (unlike tables), they consume minimal storage while still providing a reusable query structure. This is especially important in environments where storage efficiency and performance tuning are key responsibilities of the DBA.
Option A, a table, would require duplicating data, increasing disk usage and maintenance overhead. Option C, a function, is typically used to return a calculated value and is not designed to represent reusable multi-row query results for reporting purposes. Option D, a stored procedure, can encapsulate logic and queries, but it is generally used for executing operations rather than providing a simple, queryable dataset for analysts. Stored procedures may also introduce additional complexity and are less intuitive for ad-hoc querying.
CompTIA DataSys+ emphasizes views as a best practice for abstraction, security, and efficiency. They support repeated reporting needs while preserving storage resources and simplifying database management.
Therefore, B. View is the most accurate and fully aligned answer.
Guage
NEW QUESTION # 74
Which of the following ORM tools enables developers to work with a database using .NET objects?
- A. Hibernate
- B. Eclipse
- C. Ebean
- D. Entity Framework
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 75
Which of the following is used to write SQL queries in various programming languages?
- A. Excel
- B. Normalization
- C. Indexing
- D. Object-relational mapping
Answer: D
Explanation:
The option that is used to write SQL queries in various programming languages is object-relational mapping.
Object-relational mapping (ORM) is a technique that maps objects in an object-oriented programming language (such as Java, Python, C#, etc.) to tables in a relational database (such as Oracle, MySQL, SQL Server, etc.). ORM allows users to write SQL queries in their preferred programming language without having to deal with the differences or complexities between the two paradigms. ORM also provides users with various benefits such as code reuse, abstraction, validation, etc. The other options are either not related or not effective for this purpose. For example, indexing is a technique that creates data structures that store the values of one or more columns of a table in a sorted order to speed up queries; Excel is a software application that allows users to organize and manipulate data in rows and columns; normalization is a process that organizes data into tables and columns to reduce redundancy and improve consistency. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 1.0 Database Fundamentals, Objective 1.2 Given a scenario, execute database tasks using scripting and programming languages.
NEW QUESTION # 76
(Which of the following normal forms (NFs) is considered the most preferable for relational database design?)
- A. 3NF
- B. 4NF
- C. 1NF
- D. 2NF
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. 3NF (Third Normal Form). According to CompTIA DataSys+, Third Normal Form is widely regarded as the most preferable and practical level of normalization for relational database design in real-world environments. It strikes an optimal balance between reducing data redundancy, maintaining data integrity, and preserving query performance.
To understand why 3NF is preferred, it is important to consider the progression of normalization. First Normal Form (1NF) ensures that tables contain atomic values and no repeating groups. Second Normal Form (2NF) builds on this by eliminating partial dependencies, ensuring that non-key attributes depend on the entire primary key. While these forms improve structure, they do not fully address all redundancy issues.
Third Normal Form (3NF) goes further by removing transitive dependencies, meaning that non-key attributes depend only on the primary key and not on other non-key attributes. This significantly reduces duplication of data and prevents common anomalies during INSERT, UPDATE, and DELETE operations.
CompTIA DataSys+ emphasizes that eliminating transitive dependencies is critical for maintaining long-term data consistency and integrity.
Although Fourth Normal Form (4NF) and higher normal forms exist, DataSys+ notes that they are typically applied only in specialized cases involving complex multi-valued dependencies. Over-normalization beyond
3NF can increase schema complexity, require excessive joins, and negatively impact performance without providing proportional benefits in most transactional systems.
As a result, 3NF is considered the industry-standard target for relational database design. It provides a clean, maintainable schema that supports scalability, reduces redundancy, and aligns well with performance expectations. CompTIA DataSys+ highlights 3NF as the most commonly implemented and recommended normalization level for operational databases.
Therefore, the most preferable normal form for relational database design is 3NF, making option C the correct and fully verified answer.
NEW QUESTION # 77
A database administrator needs to remove a redundant customer table from a database in order to streamline periodic reports. Which of the following commands is best for this task?
- A. DELETE TABLE CUSTOMER
- B. DROP TABLE CUSTOMER
- C. UPDATE TABLE CUSTOMER
- D. REMOVE TABLE CUSTOMER
Answer: B
Explanation:
The DROP TABLE command permanently removes the entire customer table and its data from the database, streamlining reports and eliminating redundancy.
NEW QUESTION # 78
What technology may be used to perform disk-to-disk backups with systems designed to work only with tapes?
- A. Journaling
- B. VTL
- C. VLAN
- D. D2D
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 79
A database administrator has configured a Resource Governor with three resource pools. The first resource pool is assigned a minimum CPU and memory value of 25%. The second resource pool is assigned a minimum CPU and memory value of 35%. The database administrator wants to assign the maximum CPU and the maximum resource pool to the third resource. Which of the following is the maximum memory the database administrator should assign to the third resource?
- A. 40%
- B. 20%
- C. 100%
- D. 60%
Answer: A
Explanation:
The first and second resource pools have a combined minimum memory allocation of 25% + 35%
= 60%. The maximum memory that can be assigned to the third resource pool is the remaining memory, which is 100% - 60% = 40%.
NEW QUESTION # 80
(Which of the following should a database administrator monitor to ensure a database has enough physical storage available to maintain performance expectations? Select two.)
- A. Concurrent connections
- B. CPU usage
- C. RAM usage
- D. Database size growth
- E. Disk space
- F. Network traffic
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
The correct answers are B. Disk space and D. Database size growth. CompTIA DataSys+ places strong emphasis on storage monitoring as a critical responsibility of a database administrator (DBA), particularly to ensure ongoing performance, availability, and capacity planning. Physical storage constraints directly affect database operations such as inserts, updates, indexing, backups, and transaction logging.
Disk space monitoring is essential because databases require sufficient free storage not only for data files, but also for transaction logs, temporary files, indexes, and maintenance operations. If disk space becomes constrained, the database may experience degraded performance, failed write operations, or complete service outages. DataSys+ highlights proactive disk monitoring as a best practice to prevent unplanned downtime and emergency remediation.
Database size growth is equally important because it enables the DBA to anticipate future storage needs.
Databases rarely remain static; they grow as new records are added, indexes expand, and historical data accumulates. By tracking growth trends, administrators can forecast when additional storage will be required and take action before performance is impacted. DataSys+ identifies capacity planning as a key operational task, and monitoring growth patterns is central to that process.
Option A, network traffic, affects connectivity and throughput but does not determine physical storage availability. Option C, concurrent connections, relates to workload and performance but not disk capacity.
Option E, CPU usage, and option F, RAM usage, are critical server health metrics, but they do not indicate whether sufficient physical storage exists.
CompTIA DataSys+ clearly distinguishes between compute resources and storage resources. To ensure adequate physical storage and sustained performance, DBAs must monitor both current disk utilization and long-term database growth. Therefore, B and D are the correct and fully verified answers.
NEW QUESTION # 81
Which of the following is a result of an on-path attack on a system?
- A. A website that has crashed and is no longer accessible
- B. An email from an unknown source requesting bank account details
- C. A web application that returns the addresses of its customers
- D. A Wi-Fi network that redirects to clones of legitimate websites
Answer: D
Explanation:
A result of an on-path attack on a system is a Wi-Fi network that redirects to clones of legitimate websites. An on-path attack is a type of attack that intercepts and modifies the traffic between two parties without their knowledge or consent. An attacker can use an on-path attack to create a rogue Wi-Fi network that mimics a legitimate one, and then redirect the users to fake websites that look like the ones they intended to visit. The attacker can then steal the users' personal or financial information, such as usernames, passwords, credit card numbers, or bank account details. The other options are either results of different types of attacks or not related to attacks at all. For example, a website that has crashed and is no longer accessible may be a result of a denial-of-service attack, an email from an unknown source requesting bank account details may be a result of a phishing attack, and a web application that returns the addresses of its customers may be a result of a poor design or a data breach.
NEW QUESTION # 82
Gary is logging into a system and is providing his fingerprint to gain access. What step of the IAM process is he performing?
- A. Accounting
- B. Authorization
- C. Authentication
- D. Identification
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 83
Which of the following database instances are created by default when SQL Server is installed? (Choose two.)
- A. Model
- B. Master
- C. View
- D. Log
- E. Root
- F. Index
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
The two database instances that are created by default when SQL Server is installed are master and model. Master is a system database that contains the information and settings of the SQL Server instance, such as the configuration, logins, endpoints, databases, etc. Master is essential for the operation and management of the SQL Server instance, and it should be backed up regularly. Model is a system database that serves as a template for creating new user databases. Model contains the default settings and objects, such as tables, views, procedures, etc., that will be inherited by the new user databases. Model can be modified to customize the new user databases according to specific needs or preferences. The other options are either not database instances or not created by default when SQL Server is installed. For example, root is not a database instance, but a term that refers to the highest level of access or privilege in a system; log is not a database instance, but a file that records the changes made by transactions on a database; view is not a database instance, but an object that represents a subset or a combination of data from one or more tables; index is not a database instance, but a data structure that stores the values of one or more columns of a table in a sorted order. Reference: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 2.0 Database Deployment, Objective 2.3 Given a scenario, update database systems.
NEW QUESTION # 84
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