Best Quality CompTIA N10-009 Exam Questions TestPassKing Realistic Practice Exams [2025]
Critical Information To CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Pass the First Time
NEW QUESTION # 61
Which of the following is the first step in a problem-solving process when you want to understand the underlying cause of an issue?
- A. Use a top-down approach
- B. Create a theory about the possible root cause
- C. Handle multiple problems individually
- D. Conduct tests to verify ideas
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 62
Users are unable to access files on their department share located on flle_server 2. The network administrator has been tasked with validating routing between networks hosting workstation A and file server 2.
INSTRUCTIONS
Click on each router to review output, identity any Issues, and configure the appropriate solution If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of trie simulation, please click the reset All button;
Answer:
Explanation:
See the solution configuration below in Explanation.
Explanation:
A screenshot of a computer AI-generated content may be incorrect.
A screenshot of a computer AI-generated content may be incorrect.
A screenshot of a computer AI-generated content may be incorrect.
NEW QUESTION # 63
A network architect needs to create a wireless field network to provide reliable service to public safety vehicles. Which of the following types of networks is the best solution?
- A. Mesh
- B. Point-to-point
- C. Ad hoc
- D. Infrastructure
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 64
A company is hosting a secure that requires all connections to the server to be encrypted. A junior administrator needs to harded the web server. The following ports on the web server. The following ports on the web server are open:
Which of the following ports should be disabled?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: B
Explanation:
For a web server that requires all connections to be encrypted, port 80 (HTTP) should be disabled. Port 80 is used for unencrypted web traffic, whereas port 443 is used for HTTPS, which provides encrypted communication.
Port 80 (HTTP): This port is used for unsecured web traffic. Disabling this port ensures that all web traffic must use HTTPS, which encrypts the data in transit.
Port 443 (HTTPS): This port is used for secure web traffic via SSL/TLS encryption. Keeping this port open ensures that secure connections can be made to the web server.
Other Ports:
Port 22: Used for SSH, providing secure remote access and file transfers.
Port 587: Used for secure email submission (SMTP) with encryption.
Network References:
CompTIA Network+ N10-007 Official Certification Guide: Discusses the roles and security implications of various ports and protocols.
Cisco Networking Academy: Provides training on secure web server configuration and port management.
Network+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide: Covers port security and best practices for securing web servers.
NEW QUESTION # 65
Which of the following is used to store and deliver content to clients in a geographically distributed manner using edge servers?
- A. SAN
- B. CDN
- C. DNS server
- D. Load balancer
Answer: B
Explanation:
A Content Delivery Network (CDN) stores cached versions of content in edge locations to deliver data faster and more reliably to users based on geographical proximity.
From Andrew Ramdayal's guide:
"CDNs distribute content to multiple, geographically dispersed servers. This enhances performance and reliability for end-users by reducing latency and load times."
NEW QUESTION # 66
After installing a series of Cat 8 keystones, a data center architect notices higher than normal interference during tests. Which of the following steps should the architect take to troubleshoot the issue?
- A. Check to see if the end connections were wrapped in copper tape before terminating.
- B. Run a speed test on a device that can only achieve 100Mbps speeds.
- C. Use passthrough modular crimping plugs instead of traditional crimping plugs.
- D. Connect the RX/TX wires to different pins.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Importance of Proper Termination:
Cat 8 cabling requires precise termination practices to ensure signal integrity and reduce interference. One common requirement is to wrap the end connections in copper tape to maintain shielding and reduce electromagnetic interference (EMI).
Interference Troubleshooting:
Interference in high-frequency cables like Cat 8 can be caused by improper shielding or grounding. Checking the end connections for proper wrapping in copper tape is a crucial step.
NEW QUESTION # 67
A secure communication link needs to beconfigured between data centers via the internet. The data centers are located in different regions. Which of the following is thebest protocolfor the network administrator to use?
- A. GRE
- B. VXLAN
- C. DCI
- D. IPSec
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
IPSec (Internet Protocol Security)is the best choice forsecure communication over the internet, as it providesencryption, authentication, and data integrity. It is widely used inVPNs and site-to-site secure tunnels.
Breakdown of Options:
* A. DCI (Data Center Interconnect)- A general term forlinking data centers, but it doesn't specify a secure tunneling protocol.
* B. GRE (Generic Routing Encapsulation)- Encapsulates traffic butlacks encryption, making itless secure than IPSec.
* C. VXLAN (Virtual Extensible LAN)- Used forLayer 2 network overlays,not for securing communication over the internet.
* D. IPSec-#Correct answer.Providesencryption, authentication, and integrityfor data over the internet.
NEW QUESTION # 68
SIMULATION
A network technician was recently onboarded to a company. A manager has tasked the technician with documenting the network and has provided the technician with partial information from previous documentation.
INSTRUCTIONS
Click on each switch to perform a network discovery by entering commands into the terminal.
Type help in each terminal to view a list of available commands.
Fill in the missing information using the drop-down meus provided.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Answer:
Explanation:
(Note: IPs will be change on each simulation task, so we have given example answer for the understanding) To perform a network discovery by entering commands into the terminal, you can use the following steps:
Click on each switch to open its terminal window.
Enter the command show ip interface brief to display the IP addresses and statuses of the switch interfaces.
Enter the command show vlan brief to display the VLAN configurations and assignments of the switch interfaces.
Enter the command show cdp neighbors to display the information about the neighboring devices that are connected to the switch.
Fill in the missing information in the diagram using the drop-down menus provided.
Here is an example of how to fill in the missing information for Core Switch 1:
The IP address of Core Switch 1 is 192.168.1.1.
The VLAN configuration of Core Switch 1 is VLAN 1: 192.168.1.0/24, VLAN 2: 192.168.2.0/24, VLAN 3: 192.168.3.0/24.
The neighboring devices of Core Switch 1 are Access Switch 1 and Access Switch 2.
The interfaces that connect Core Switch 1 to Access Switch 1 are GigabitEthernet0/1 and GigabitEthernet0/2.
The interfaces that connect Core Switch 1 to Access Switch 2 are GigabitEthernet0/3 and GigabitEthernet0/4.
You can use the same steps to fill in the missing information for Access Switch 1 and Access Switch 2.
NEW QUESTION # 69
Which of the following best explains the role of confidentiality with regard to data at rest?
- A. Datacanbe accessedafter verifying the hash.
- B. Datacanbe accessedremotely with proper training.
- C. Datacanbe accessedafter privileged access Is granted.
- D. Datacanbe accessedby anyone on the administrative network.
Answer: C
Explanation:
* Confidentiality with Data at Rest: Confidentiality is a core principle of data security, ensuring that data stored (at rest) is only accessible to authorized individuals. This protection is achieved through mechanisms such as encryption, access controls, and permissions.
* Privileged Access: The statement "Data can be accessed after privileged access is granted" aligns with the confidentiality principle, as it restricts data access to users who have been granted specific permissions or roles. Only those with the appropriate credentials or permissions can access the data.
* Incorrect Options:
* A. "Data can be accessed by anyone on the administrative network." This violates the principle of confidentiality by allowing unrestricted access.
* B. "Data can be accessed remotely with proper training." This focuses on remote access rather than restricting access based on privileges.
* D. "Data can be accessed after verifying the hash." This option relates more to data integrity rather than confidentiality.
CompTIA Network+ materials on data security principles, particularly sections on confidentiality and access control mechanisms.
NEW QUESTION # 70
Which of the following attacks involves creating a rogue access point with the same SSID as a legitimate wireless network to deceive users into connecting?
- A. Manipulate address resolution to point devices to a malicious endpoint
- B. Capture data in transit between two legitimate endpoints to steal data
- C. Trick users into using an AP with an SSID that is identical to a legitimate network
- D. Present an identical MAC to gain unauthorized access to network resources
Answer: C
Explanation:
An evil twin attack sets up a rogue AP with the same SSID as a legitimate wireless network, tricking users into connecting. Once connected, the attacker can intercept traffic or harvest credentials.
* B. Describes ARP spoofing.
* C. Describes MAC spoofing.
* D. Describes on-path attacks, which may follow, but the evil twin method begins with SSID impersonation.
References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):
* Domain: Network Security - Wireless threats, rogue APs, evil twin.
NEW QUESTION # 71
A network administrator recently configured an autonomous wireless AP and performed a throughput test via comptiaspeedtester.com. The result was 75 Mbps. When connected to other APs, the results reached 500 Mbps. Which of the following is most likely the reason for this difference?
- A. Incorrect DHCP settings
- B. DNS server issues
- C. Authentication failure
- D. Channel width configuration
Answer: D
Explanation:
The channel width (20 MHz vs. 40 MHz vs. 80 MHz) directly impacts Wi-Fi throughput. If the AP is configured with a narrow channel width (e.g., 20 MHz), maximum data rates will be significantly lower than other APs using wider channels (e.g., 80 MHz). This matches the scenario where one AP achieves only ~75 Mbps, while others reach 500 Mbps.
* B. DNS issues affect name resolution, not raw throughput.
* C. Authentication failure would prevent connection, not reduce throughput.
* D. DHCP issues would prevent obtaining an IP, not cause slower speeds.
References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):
* Domain: Network Troubleshooting - Wireless throughput issues, channel width configuration.
NEW QUESTION # 72
Which of the following is used to estimate the average life span of a device?
- A. RPO
- B. MTBF
- C. MTTR
- D. RTO
Answer: B
Explanation:
* Understanding MTBF:
* Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF):A reliability metric that estimates the average time between successive failures of a device or system.
* Calculation and Importance:
* Calculation:MTBF is calculated as the total operational time divided by the number of failures during that period.
* Usage:Used by manufacturers and engineers to predict the lifespan and reliability of a device, helping in maintenance planning and lifecycle management.
* Comparison with Other Metrics:
* RTO (Recovery Time Objective):The maximum acceptable time to restore a system after a failure.
* RPO (Recovery Point Objective):The maximum acceptable amount of data loss measured in time.
* MTTR (Mean Time to Repair):The average time required to repair a device or system and return it to operational status.
* Application:
* MTBF is crucial for planning maintenance schedules, spare parts inventory, and improving the overall reliability of systems.
References:
* CompTIA Network+ study materials on reliability and maintenance metrics.
NEW QUESTION # 73
A network administrator needs to set up a multicast network for audio and video broadcasting. Which of the following networks would be the most appropriate for this application?
- A. 192.168.0.0/24
- B. 240.0.0.0/24
- C. 224.0.0.0/24
- D. 172.16.0.0/24
Answer: C
Explanation:
* Understanding Multicast:
* Multicast IP Address Range: The multicast address range is from 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255, designated for multicast traffic.
* Multicast Applications:
* Use Case: Multicast is used for one-to-many or many-to-many communication, suitable for applications like audio and video broadcasting where the same data is sent to multiple recipients simultaneously.
* Appropriate Network Selection:
* 224.0.0.0/24 Network: This range is reserved for multicast addresses, making it the appropriate choice for setting up a multicast network.
* Comparison with Other Options:
* 172.16.0.0/24: Part of the private IP address space, used for private networks, not designated for multicast.
* 192.168.0.0/24: Another private IP address range, also not for multicast.
* 240.0.0.0/24: Reserved for future use, not suitable for multicast.
NEW QUESTION # 74
A government entity wants to implement technology that can block websites based on country code. Which of the following will best enable this requirement?
- A. DNS poisoning
- B. MAC filtering
- C. URL filtering
- D. Content filtering
Answer: C
Explanation:
URL filtering can block access to websites based on their domain or country code TLDs (e.g., .cn, .ru). This is the correct method to block by location identifiers in URLs.
B . Content filtering blocks based on keywords or categories within websites, not country code.
C . DNS poisoning is an attack, not a control mechanism.
D . MAC filtering restricts devices, not websites.
Reference (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):
Domain: Network Security - Filtering technologies, URL vs content filtering.
NEW QUESTION # 75
A network administrator needs to connect a department to a new network segment. They need to use a DHCP server located on another network. Which of the following can the administrator use to complete this task?
- A. Exclusion
- B. Reservation
- C. IP Helper
- D. Scope
Answer: C
Explanation:
An IP Helper (IP Helper Address) allows DHCP requests to pass through routers and reach a DHCP server on another network.
* DHCP broadcasts are not forwarded across routers by default, so an IP Helper Address is needed to relay the request.
* This is crucial for large networks where a single DHCP server serves multiple subnets.
* Option B (Reservation): Ensures a specific IP address is assigned to a MAC address but does not relay DHCP across networks.
* Option C (Exclusion): Prevents specific IP addresses from being assigned, but does not help with DHCP relay.
* Option D (Scope): Defines the range of IP addresses available for DHCP clients but does not assist in cross-network communication.
? Reference: CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) Official Study Guide - Section: DHCP and IP Addressing
NEW QUESTION # 76
What is the most likely cause of a workstation being able to access the internet and printers, but not internal servers?
- A. Error-disabled port
- B. Wrong VLAN assignment
- C. Duplicate IP address
- D. Incorrect default gateway
Answer: B
Explanation:
If a workstation can access the internet and printers (likely in another VLAN) but not internal servers, the port was likely placed into the wrong VLAN after the move. VLAN assignment controls Layer 2 segmentation, restricting access to resources on different VLANs.
* A. A wrong default gateway would prevent internet access.
* C. An error-disabled port would block all connectivity.
* D. A duplicate IP would cause general network issues, not just missing server access.
References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):
* Domain: Network Troubleshooting - VLAN misconfiguration, connectivity issues.
NEW QUESTION # 77
A company recently implemented a videoconferencing system that utilizes large amounts of bandwidth. Users start reporting slow internet speeds and an overall decrease in network performance. Which of the following are most likely the causes of the network performance issues? (Select two)
- A. Outdated software
- B. Network congestion
- C. Inadequate network security
- D. Malware or a virus
- E. DNS misconfiguration
- F. Incorrect QoS settings
Answer: B,F
Explanation:
When high-bandwidth services like videoconferencing are introduced, two primary factors may degrade performance:
Incorrect QoS Settings (E):QoS (Quality of Service) is used to prioritize traffic. If not configured correctly, critical services like video may not get the necessary bandwidth and prioritization.
Network Congestion (F):Video services consume large amounts of data. If the network doesn't have sufficient bandwidth or is not segmented properly, congestion will slow down all services.
DNS misconfiguration (A) would affect name resolution, not bandwidth.
Malware (C) could degrade performance, but is not tied to the described scenario.
Outdated software (D) may affect performance in some cases, but not directly linked to network congestion in this case.
Inadequate network security (B) isn't likely to cause general slowness related to video traffic.
✅ So, the most likely culprits are E. Incorrect QoS settings and F. Network congestion.
Reference:
NEW QUESTION # 78
A company's marketing team created a new application and would like to create a DNS record for newapplication.comptia.org that always resolves to the same address as www.comptia.org.
Which of the following records should the administrator use?
- A. SOA
- B. CNAME
- C. NS
- D. MX
Answer: B
Explanation:
A CNAME (Canonical Name) record is used in DNS to alias one domain name to another. This means that newapplication.comptia.org can be made to resolve to the same IP address as www.comptia.org by creating a CNAME record pointing newapplication.comptia.org to www.comptia.org. SOA (Start of Authority) is used for DNS zone information, MX (Mail Exchange) is for mail server records, and NS (Name Server) is for specifying authoritative DNS servers.
NEW QUESTION # 79
Which of the following routing protocols uses an autonomous system number?
- A. EIGRP
- B. IS-IS
- C. OSPF
- D. BGP
Answer: D
Explanation:
BGP (Border Gateway Protocol) uses an Autonomous System (AS) number for its operations. An AS is a collection of IP networks and routers under the control of a single organization that presents a common routing policy to the Internet. BGP is used to exchange routing information between different ASes on the Internet, making it the only protocol among the listed options that uses an AS number.References:CompTIA Network+ study materials and RFC 4271.
NEW QUESTION # 80
Which of the following most likely requires the use of subinterfaces?
- A. A firewall performing deep packet inspection
- B. A hub utilizing jumbo frames
- C. A switch using Spanning Tree Protocol
- D. A router with only one available LAN port
Answer: D
Explanation:
Introduction to Subinterfaces:
Subinterfaces are logical interfaces created on a single physical interface. They are used to enable a router to support multiple networks on a single physical interface.
Use Case for Subinterfaces:
Subinterfaces are commonly used in scenarios where VLANs are implemented. A router with a single physical LAN port can be configured with multiple subinterfaces, each associated with a different VLAN.
NEW QUESTION # 81
Before using a guest network, an administrator requires users to accept the terms of use Which of the following is the best way to accomplish this goal?
- A. Captive portal
- B. Autonomous access point
- C. WPA2 encryption
- D. Pre-shared key
Answer: A
Explanation:
A captive portal is a web page that users must view and interact with before being granted access to a network. It is commonly used in guest networks to enforce terms of use agreements. When a user connects to the network, they are redirected to this portal where they must accept the terms of use before proceeding. This method ensures that users are aware of and agree to the network's policies, making it the best choice for this scenario. Reference: CompTIA Network+ Exam Objectives and official study guides.
NEW QUESTION # 82
After a recent power outage, users are reporting performance issues accessing the application servers.
Wireless users are also reporting intermittent Internet issues.
INSTRUCTIONS
Click on each tab at the top of the screen. Select a widget to view information, then use the drop-down menus to answer the associated questions. If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Answer:
Explanation:
See the answer and solution below.
Explanation:
Network Health:
WAN 2 appears to have a lower average latency and loss percentage, which would make it the preferred WAN station for VoIP traffic. VoIP traffic requires low latency and packet loss to ensure good voice quality and reliability. WAN 1 seems to have higher RAM and processor usage, which could also affect the performance of VoIP traffic.
Here's the summary of the key metrics for WAN 1 and WAN 2 from the image provided:
* WAN 1:
* Uplink Speed: 10G
* Total Usage: 26.969GB Up / 1.748GB Down
* Average Throughput: 353MBps Up / 23.42MBps Down
* Loss: 2.51%
* Average Latency: 24ms
* Jitter: 9.5ms
* WAN 2:
* Uplink Speed: 1G
* Total Usage: 930GB Up / 138GB Down
* Average Throughput: 12.21MBps Up / 1.82MBps Down
* Loss: 0.01%
* Average Latency: 11ms
* Jitter: 3.9ms
For VoIP traffic, low latency and jitter are particularly important to ensure voice quality. While WAN 1 has higher bandwidth and throughput, it also has higher latency and jitter compared to WAN 2. However, WAN 2 has much lower loss, lower latency, and lower jitter, which are more favorable for VoIP traffic that is sensitive to delays and variation in packet arrival times.
Given this information, WAN 2 would generally be preferred for VoIP traffic due to its lower latency, lower jitter, and significantly lower loss percentage, despite its lower bandwidth compared to WAN 1. The high bandwidth of WAN 1 may be more suitable for other types of traffic that are less sensitive to latency and jitter, such as bulk data transfers.
Device Monitoring:
the device that is experiencing connectivity issues is the APP Server or Router 1, which has a status of Down.
This means that the server is not responding to network requests or sending any data. You may want to check the physical connection, power supply, and configuration of the APP Server to troubleshoot the problem.
NEW QUESTION # 83
Which of the following requires network devices to be managed using a different set of IP addresses?
- A. Split tunnel
- B. Out of band
- C. Jump box
- D. Console
Answer: B
Explanation:
Out-of-band (OOB) management refers to using a dedicated management network that is physically separate from the regular data network. This management network uses a different set of IP addresses to ensure that management traffic is isolated from user data traffic, providing a secure way to manage network devices even if the main network is down or compromised.References:CompTIA Network+ study materials.
NEW QUESTION # 84
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