Updated EC-COUNCIL 312-39 Dumps – Check Free 312-39 Exam Dumps (2026) [Q14-Q30]

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Updated EC-COUNCIL 312-39 Dumps – Check Free 312-39 Exam Dumps (2026)

Updated 312-39 exam with EC-COUNCIL Real Exam Questions


EC-COUNCIL 312-39 exam is a certification test that is designed to assess the skills and knowledge of professionals who are seeking to become certified SOC (Security Operations Center) analysts. Certified SOC Analyst (CSA) certification is recognized worldwide and is highly valued in the cybersecurity industry. 312-39 exam is designed to test the candidate's ability to detect, analyze, and respond to security incidents and threats, as well as their ability to manage and maintain the security operations center.


To be eligible for the exam, candidates must have at least two years of experience in information security and possess a strong understanding of networking, operating systems, and cybersecurity fundamentals. 312-39 exam consists of 100 multiple-choice questions and must be completed within three hours. Passing the exam requires a minimum score of 70%.

 

NEW QUESTION # 14
According to the Risk Matrix table, what will be the risk level when the probability of an attack is very high, and the impact of that attack is major?
NOTE: It is mandatory to answer the question before proceeding to the next one.

  • A. Low
  • B. Medium
  • C. Extreme
  • D. High

Answer: C

Explanation:
In a Risk Matrix, risk levels are determined by the intersection of the likelihood of an occurrence (probability) and the consequence of that occurrence (impact). When the probability of an event is very high and the impact is major, it typically falls into the 'Extreme' category. This is because the combination of a high likelihood and major impact represents a scenario where the risk is unacceptable and requires immediate attention and mitigation measures.
References: The EC-Council's Certified SOC Analyst (CSA) course materials and study guides provide detailed information on assessing risks using a Risk Matrix. The course emphasizes the importance of understanding the Risk Matrix for effective security operations center (SOC) analysis. For more in-depth information, refer to the official EC-Council CSA study materials and resources12.


NEW QUESTION # 15
A mid-sized healthcare organization is facing frequent phishing and ransomware attacks. They lack an internal SOC and want proactive threat detection and response capabilities. Compliance with HIPAA regulations is essential. The organization seeks a solution that includes both monitoring and rapid response to incidents. Which service best meets their needs?

  • A. Cloud-based SIEM with MSSP-managed services
  • B. MSSP with 24/7 log monitoring and incident escalation
  • C. MDR with proactive threat hunting and incident containment
  • D. Self-hosted SIEM with in-house SOC analysts

Answer: C

Explanation:
Managed Detection and Response (MDR) best fits because it typically includes proactive threat hunting, continuous monitoring, and direct incident containment actions-exactly what an organization without an internal SOC needs when facing active phishing and ransomware threats. MDR providers usually operate with EDR/XDR-style telemetry, enabling rapid endpoint isolation, malicious process containment, and guided remediation, which is critical for ransomware where time-to-containment determines impact. An MSSP focused on log monitoring and escalation may provide visibility and alerting but often stops at notifying or ticketing rather than performing containment actions, which can slow response. A self-hosted SIEM with in- house analysts contradicts the constraint "lack an internal SOC" and requires significant staffing and engineering to be effective. A cloud SIEM with MSSP-managed services can be viable, but the question emphasizes proactive detection and response; MDR is the most directly aligned service model for hands-on containment and active hunting. For HIPAA, MDR also supports incident documentation, monitoring evidence, and response coordination, which helps meet regulatory expectations for safeguarding and incident handling.


NEW QUESTION # 16
A mid-sized financial institution's SOC is overwhelmed by thousands of daily alerts, many based on Indicators of Compromise (IoCs) such as suspicious IPs, hashes, and domains. These alerts lack context about whether they truly pose a threat. Analysts waste time on low-priority incidents while severe threats may be missed. The team lacks tools and intelligence to correlate IoCs with real-world threats, making prioritization difficult and causing alert fatigue. Which poses the greatest challenge in this environment?

  • A. Budget and enterprise skill
  • B. Malware-centric and CTI are not equivalent
  • C. Distinguishing IoC from CTI
  • D. Information overload

Answer: C

Explanation:
The core problem described is that the SOC is treating raw indicators (IoCs) as if they are actionable intelligence (CTI), without enough context to prioritize. IoCs are often low-context, high-volume, and time- sensitive; many are noisy, shared infrastructure, or already outdated. CTI (cyber threat intelligence) adds context-adversary, campaign, intent, targeting, confidence, and recommended actions-so analysts can decide what matters for their environment. The scenario explicitly states the alerts "lack critical context" and the team "lacks tools and intelligence to correlate IoCs with real-world threats," which is fundamentally a failure to distinguish IoC data from intelligence. Information overload is a symptom, but the underlying challenge is that the organization is ingesting IoCs without intelligence enrichment and prioritization logic.
Budget/skill can contribute, but the question asks for the greatest challenge given the described conditions.
From a SOC perspective, solving this requires enrichment (TI platforms, reputation + context), correlation with internal telemetry, scoring based on relevance, and focusing on behaviors and impact rather than indicator volume alone. Therefore, distinguishing IoC from CTI is the best answer.


NEW QUESTION # 17
John, SOC analyst wants to monitor the attempt of process creation activities from any of their Windows endpoints.
Which of following Splunk query will help him to fetch related logs associated with process creation?

  • A. index=windows LogName=Security EventCode=5688 NOT (Account_Name=*$) ... ... ...
  • B. index=windows LogName=Security EventCode=4688 NOT (Account_Name=*$) .. .. ..
  • C. index=windows LogName=Security EventCode=4678 NOT (Account_Name=*$) .. .. ... ..
  • D. index=windows LogName=Security EventCode=3688 NOT (Account_Name=*$) .. .. ..

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 18
Which of the log storage method arranges event logs in the form of a circular buffer?

  • A. non-wrapping
  • B. FIFO
  • C. wrapping
  • D. LIFO

Answer: C

Explanation:
In the context of log storage, a circular buffer is a data structure that uses a single, fixed-size buffer as if it were connected end-to-end. This structure lends itself to buffering streams of data, where the data is written to the buffer and read from it in a potentially non-sequential manner. When the buffer is full, new data is written starting at the beginning of the buffer, and thus 'wraps' around. This is why the method is referred to as
'wrapping'. FIFO (First In, First Out) and LIFO (Last In, First Out) are queueing methods, and non-wrapping implies that the buffer does not overwrite existing data when full.
References: The answer can be verified through EC-Council's SOC Analyst study materials and official courseware, which detail various log storage methods and their characteristics. Additionally, the concept of a circular buffer is a well-known data structure in computer science, often discussed in the context of system design and memory management.


NEW QUESTION # 19
Identify the event severity level in Windows logs for the events that are not necessarily significant, but may indicate a possible future problem.

  • A. Error
  • B. Information
  • C. Failure Audit
  • D. Warning

Answer: D

Explanation:
In the context of Windows logs, the event severity level that indicates events that are not necessarily significant but may point to a possible future problem is classified as a "Warning." This level is used to log events that are not immediately harmful, such as an impending disk space shortage or other conditions that could potentially cause problems if not addressed.
References: The EC-Council's Certified SOC Analyst (CSA) program covers the fundamentals of SOC operations, including log management and correlation, which would encompass understanding the severity levels of events in Windows logs1. Additionally, the discussion on the ExamTopics website corroborates that the answer to this question is "Warning"2. Further general information on Windows event logging can be found in resources like Sumo Logic's guide to Windows Event Logging3 and other incident response guides that discuss the importance of monitoring event severity levels within a SOC4.


NEW QUESTION # 20
Which of the following attack can be eradicated by disabling of "allow_url_fopen and allow_url_include" in the php.ini file?

  • A. URL Injection Attacks
  • B. File Injection Attacks
  • C. LDAP Injection Attacks
  • D. Command Injection Attacks

Answer: B

Explanation:


NEW QUESTION # 21
Jason, a SOC Analyst with Maximus Tech, was investigating Cisco ASA Firewall logs and came across the following log entry:
May 06 2018 21:27:27 asa 1: %ASA -5 - 11008: User 'enable_15' executed the 'configure term' command What does the security level in the above log indicates?

  • A. Informational message
  • B. Normal but significant message
  • C. Warning condition message
  • D. Critical condition message

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 22
The SOC team is investigating a phishing attack that targeted multiple employees. During the Containment Phase, they need to determine how users interacted with the malicious email: whether they opened it, clicked links, downloaded attachments, or entered credentials. This information is critical to assessing impact and preventing further compromise. Which specific activity helps the SOC team understand user interactions with the phishing email?

  • A. User action verification
  • B. Monitoring and containment validation
  • C. Blocking command-and-control (C2) and email traffic
  • D. Malware infection check

Answer: A

Explanation:
User action verification is the activity that directly answers "what did users do with the phishing message?" In SOC containment, you need to rapidly determine exposure: who opened the email, who clicked the URL, who opened an attachment, and who submitted credentials. This drives priority actions such as password resets, session revocation, MFA re-registration, endpoint isolation, URL/domain blocking, mailbox searches for similar messages, and targeted user notifications. Monitoring/containment validation confirms whether containment actions are effective (e.g., blocks are working, incidents aren't spreading), but it does not specifically measure user interaction steps. Malware infection checks assess whether an endpoint is infected- useful if an attachment executed-but it comes after confirming interaction and is not the primary method to understand email engagement. Blocking C2 and email traffic is an active containment control, but it doesn't provide the "who clicked/opened" understanding needed to scope impacted users. SOC analysts typically use email gateway telemetry, message trace, safe links/safe attachments logs, and identity sign-in logs to verify user actions. Because the question is explicitly about understanding user interactions, "User action verification" is the best match.


NEW QUESTION # 23
Which of the following fields in Windows logs defines the type of event occurred, such as Correlation Hint, Response Time, SQM, WDI Context, and so on?

  • A. Task Category
  • B. Level
  • C. Keywords
  • D. Source

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 24
Which of the following contains the performance measures, and proper project and time management details?

  • A. Incident Response Process
  • B. Incident Response Tactics
  • C. Incident Response Policy
  • D. Incident Response Procedures

Answer: C

Explanation:


NEW QUESTION # 25
David is a SOC analyst in Karen Tech. One day an attack is initiated by the intruders but David was not able to find any suspicious events.
This type of incident is categorized into?

  • A. False Negative Incidents
  • B. True Positive Incidents
  • C. True Negative Incidents
  • D. False positive Incidents

Answer: A

Explanation:


NEW QUESTION # 26
Sam, a security analyst with INFOSOL INC., while monitoring and analyzing IIS logs, detected an event matching regex /\\w*((\%27)|(\'))((\%6F)|o|(\%4F))((\%72)|r|(\%52))/ix.
What does this event log indicate?

  • A. Directory Traversal Attack
  • B. Parameter Tampering Attack
  • C. SQL Injection Attack
  • D. XSS Attack

Answer: C

Explanation:
The regex pattern /\\w*((\%27)|(\'))((\%6F)|o|(\%4F))((\%72)|r|(\%52))/ix is designed to detect SQL injection attacks. The pattern looks for common SQL injection payloads which typically include an apostrophe or single quote character (' or %27 when URL-encoded) followed by a logical operator OR (represented by o, %
6F, O, %4F, r, %72, R, %52). SQL injection attacks involve inserting or "injecting" a SQL query via the input data from the client to the application. A successful SQL injection exploit can read sensitive data from the database, modify database data (Insert/Update/Delete), execute administration operations on the database (such as shutdown the DBMS), recover the content of a given file present on the DBMS file system, and in some cases, issue commands to the operating system.
References: The explanation provided is based on standard practices of monitoring and analyzing IIS logs for security threats. Information about the regex pattern used for detecting SQL injection attacks can be found in various cybersecurity resources, including OWASP's guide on Testing for SQL Injection1 and Microsoft's documentation on IIS logging2. These resources explain how regex patterns are used to identify potential security threats in log files and the importance of monitoring logs for unusual patterns that may indicate an attack.
Reference: https://community.broadcom.com/symantecenterprise/communities/community-home/ librarydocuments/viewdocument?DocumentKey=001f5e09-88b4-4a9a-b310-
4c20578eecf9&CommunityKey=1ecf5f55-9545-44d6-b0f4-4e4a7f5f5e68&tab=librarydocuments


NEW QUESTION # 27
Which of the following tool can be used to filter web requests associated with the SQL Injection attack?

  • A. Nmap
  • B. UrlScan
  • C. ZAP proxy
  • D. Hydra

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 28
Which of the following attack can be eradicated by filtering improper XML syntax?

  • A. Web Services Attacks
  • B. Insufficient Logging and Monitoring Attacks
  • C. CAPTCHA Attacks
  • D. SQL Injection Attacks

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 29
A type of threat intelligent that find out the information about the attacker by misleading them is known as
.

  • A. Detection Threat Intelligence
  • B. Counter Intelligence
  • C. Operational Intelligence
  • D. Threat trending Intelligence

Answer: B

Explanation:
Counter Intelligence in the context of threat intelligence refers to efforts to deceive, manipulate, or mislead potential attackers to uncover their intentions, capabilities, or identities. This type of intelligence is proactive and often involves setting up honeypots or other traps to engage the attacker without them realizing they are being monitored and analyzed. The goal is to gather information about the attacker that can be used to strengthen defenses and prevent future attacks.
References: The EC-Council's Certified Threat Intelligence Analyst (CTIA) program discusses various types of threat intelligence, including counter intelligence, which is designed to mislead attackers and gather information about them1. This concept is also covered in the Certified SOC Analyst (CSA) training, where analysts learn to use predictive capabilities using threat intelligence to detect and counteract sophisticated threats2. Additional resources and study guides from the EC-Council and other cybersecurity training programs will provide more in-depth information on this topic34.


NEW QUESTION # 30
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To be eligible to take the exam, candidates must have at least two years of experience in information security or related fields. They must also complete the EC-COUNCIL’s official training program, which covers all the topics that are included in the certification exam.

 

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