220-1102 Certification Overview - [Jun 06, 2024] Latest 220-1102 PDF Dumps [Q91-Q114]

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220-1102 Certification Overview - [Jun 06, 2024] Latest 220-1102 PDF Dumps

The Best CompTIA 220-1102 Study Guides and Dumps of 2024

NEW QUESTION # 91
A user is attempting to browse the internet using Internet Explorer. When trying to load a familiar web page, the user is unexpectedly redirected to an unfamiliar website. Which of the following would MOST likely solve the issue?

  • A. Changing proxy settings
  • B. Updating the operating system
  • C. Enabling port forwarding
  • D. Reinstalling the browser

Answer: D

Explanation:
Reinstalling the browser would most likely solve the issue. This would remove any malicious software or add-ons that may be causing the issue and restore the browser to its default settings.


NEW QUESTION # 92
Which of the following is also known as something you know, something you have, and something you are?

  • A. ACL
  • B. SMS
  • C. NFC
  • D. MFA

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
MFA stands for Multi-Factor Authentication, which is a method of verifying a user's identity using two or more different factors of authentication. The three factors of authentication are something you know, something you have, and something you are. These factors correspond to different types of information or evidence that only the legitimate user should possess or provide. For example:
Something you know: a password, a PIN, a security question, etc.
Something you have: a smart card, a token, a mobile device, etc.
Something you are: a fingerprint, a face, an iris, etc.
MFA provides a higher level of security than single-factor authentication, which only uses one factor, such as a password. MFA reduces the risk of unauthorized access, identity theft, and data breaches, as an attacker would need to compromise more than one factor to impersonate a user. MFA is commonly used for online banking, email accounts, cloud services, and other sensitive applications


NEW QUESTION # 93
A customer recently experienced a power outage at a SOHO. The customer does not think the components are connected properly. A print job continued running for several minutes after the power failed, but the customer was not able to interact with the computer. Once the UPS stopped beeping, all functioning devices also turned off. In case of a future power failure, the customer wants to have the most time available to save cloud documents and shut down the computer without losing any data.

Answer:

Explanation:


NEW QUESTION # 94
Which of the following Linux commands would be used to install an application?

  • A. yum
  • B. grep
  • C. Is
  • D. sudo

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 95
A small business owner wants to install newly purchased software on all networked PCs. The network is not configured as a domain, and the owner wants to use the easiest method possible. Which of the following is the MOST deficient way lor the owner to install the application?

  • A. Install the software from the vendor's website
  • B. Create an imaging USB for each PC.
  • C. Use a network share to share the installation files.
  • D. Save software to an external hard drive to install.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Saving software to an external hard drive and installing it on each individual PC is the most inefficient method for the small business owner. This method requires manual intervention on each PC, and there is a higher risk of error or inconsistencies between PCs. Additionally, if the software needs to be updated or reinstalled in the future, this process would need to be repeated on each PC.


NEW QUESTION # 96
Antivirus software indicates that a workstation is infected with ransomware that cannot be quarantined. Which of the following should be performed FIRST to prevent further damage to the host and other systems?

  • A. Remove the LAN card.
  • B. Install a different endpoint solution.
  • C. Power off the machine.
  • D. Run a full antivirus scan.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Ransomware is a type of malware that encrypts the files on a system and demands a ransom for their decryption1. Ransomware can also spread to other systems on the network or exfiltrate sensitive data to the attackers2. Therefore, it is important to isolate the infected machine as soon as possible to contain the infection and prevent further damage3. Powering off the machine is a quick and effective way of disconnecting it from the network and stopping any malicious processes running on it12. The other options are not directly related to preventing ransomware damage or may not be effective. Running a full antivirus scan may not be able to detect or remove the ransomware, especially if it is a new or unknown variant1. Removing the LAN card may disconnect the machine from the network, but it may not stop any malicious processes running on it or any data encryption or exfiltration that has already occurred2. Installing a different endpoint solution may not be possible or helpful if the system is already infected and locked by ransomware1.


NEW QUESTION # 97
A department has the following technical requirements for a new application:

The company plans to upgrade from a 32-bit Windows OS to a 64-bit OS. Which of the following will the company be able to fully take advantage of after the upgrade?

  • A. Hard drive
  • B. Touch screen
  • C. CPU
  • D. RAM

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
https://www.makeuseof.com/tag/difference-32-bit-64-bit-windows/
After upgrading from a 32-bit Windows OS to a 64-bit OS, the company will be able to fully take advantage of the RAM of the computer. This is because a 64-bit operating system is able to use larger amounts of RAM compared to a 32-bit operating system, which may benefit the system's overall performance if it has more than
4GB of RAM installed


NEW QUESTION # 98
A company discovered that numerous computers from multiple geographic locations are sending a very high number of connection requests which is causing the company's web server to become unavailable to the general public. Which of the following attacks is occurring?

  • A. Zero day
  • B. Distributed denial of service
  • C. SOL injection
  • D. Cross-site scripting

Answer: B

Explanation:
The company is experiencing a distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack. A DDoS attack is a type of cyber attack in which multiple compromised systems are used to target a single system, causing a denial of service for users of the targeted system.


NEW QUESTION # 99
Which of the following is an example of MFA?

  • A. Smart card and password
  • B. Fingerprint scan and retina scan
  • C. Password and PIN
  • D. Username and password

Answer: A

Explanation:
Smart card and password is an example of two-factor authentication (2FA), not multi-factor authentication (MFA). MFA requires two or more authentication factors. Smart card and password is an example of two-factor authentication (2FA)2


NEW QUESTION # 100
A suite of security applications was installed a few days ago on a user's home computer. The user reports that the computer has been running slowly since the installation. The user notices the hard drive activity light is constantly solid. Which of the following should be checked FIRST?

  • A. Event Viewer to identify errors
  • B. Performance Monitor to check for resource utilization
  • C. Services in Control Panel to check for overutilization
  • D. System File Checker to check for modified Windows files

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
System File Checker to check for modified Windows files. System File Checker (SFC) is a Windows utility that can be used to scan for and restore corrupt Windows system files. SFC can be used to detect and fix any modified or corrupted system files on a computer, and thus should be checked first when a user reports that their computer has been running slowly since the installation of security applications [1][2]. By checking SFC, any modified or corrupted system files can be identified and fixed, potentially improving the overall performance of the computer.


NEW QUESTION # 101
A technician receives a call from a user who is unable to open Outlook. The user states that Outlook worked fine yesterday, but the computer may have restarted sometime overnight. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason Outlook has stopped functioning?

  • A. Spam filter installation
  • B. Operating system update
  • C. Invalid registry settings
  • D. Malware infection

Answer: B

Explanation:
Operating system updates can sometimes cause compatibility issues with some applications, such as Outlook, that may prevent them from opening or working properly. This can happen if the update changes some system files or settings that Outlook relies on, or if the update conflicts with some Outlook add-ins or extensions. To fix this, the technician can try some of these troubleshooting steps:
* Start Outlook in safe mode and disable add-ins. Safe mode is a way of starting Outlook without any add-ins or extensions that may interfere with its functionality. To start Outlook in safe mode, press and hold the Ctrl key while clicking on the Outlook icon. You should see a message asking if you want to start Outlook in safe mode. Click Yes. If Outlook works fine in safe mode, it means one of the add-ins is causing the problem. To disable add-ins, go to File > Options > Add-ins. In the Manage drop-down list, select COM Add-ins and click Go. Uncheck any add-ins that you don't need and click OK. Restart Outlook normally and check if the issue is resolved4.
* Create a new Outlook profile. A profile is a set of settings and information that Outlook uses to manage your email accounts and data. Sometimes, a profile can get corrupted or damaged and cause Outlook to malfunction. To create a new profile, go to Control Panel > Mail > Show Profiles. Click Add and follow the instructions to set up a new profile with your email account. Make sure to select the option to use the new profile as the default one. Restart Outlook and check if the issue is resolved5.
* Repair your Outlook data files. Data files are files that store your email messages, contacts, calendar events, and other items on your computer. Sometimes, data files can get corrupted or damaged and cause Outlook to malfunction. To repair your data files, you can use a tool called scanpst.exe, which is located in the same folder where Outlook is installed (usually C:\Program Files\Microsoft Office\root\Office16).
To use scanpst.exe, close Outlook and locate the tool in the folder. Double-click on it and browse to the location of your data file (usually C:\Users\username\AppData\Local\Microsoft\Outlook). Select the file and click Start to begin the scanning and repairing process. When it's done, restart Outlook and check if the issue is resolved.
* Run the /resetnavpane command. The navigation pane is the panel on the left side of Outlook that shows
* your folders and accounts. Sometimes, the navigation pane can get corrupted or damaged and cause Outlook to malfunction. To reset the navigation pane, press Windows key + R to open the Run dialog box, or open the Command Prompt. Type outlook.exe /resetnavpane and hit Enter. This will clear and regenerate the navigation pane settings for Outlook. Restart Outlook and check if the issue is resolved.


NEW QUESTION # 102
A change advisory board authorized a setting change so a technician is permitted to implement the change.
The technician successfully implemented the change. Which of the following should be done NEXT?

  • A. Document findings of the sandbox test.
  • B. Document the date and time of change.
  • C. Document the purpose of the change.
  • D. Document the risk level.

Answer: B

Explanation:
After implementing a change authorized by the change advisory board (CAB), the technician should document the date and time of change as part of the post-implementation review. This helps to track the change history, verify the success of the change, and identify any issues or incidents caused by the change1. Documenting the purpose of the change, the risk level, and the findings of the sandbox test are all part of the pre-implementation activities that should be done before submitting the change request to the CAB2.
References: 2:
https://www.manageengine.com/products/service-desk/itil-change-management/cab-change-advisory-board.html
1:
https://www.servicenow.com/content/dam/servicenow-assets/public/en-us/doc-type/success/quick-answer/chang


NEW QUESTION # 103
Which of the following environmental controls is most important to maintain the safety of a data center?

  • A. Temperature control
  • B. Power managementcontrol
  • C. Fire suppression control
  • D. Humidity control

Answer: A

Explanation:
The most important environmental control to maintain the safety of a data center is Temperature control (A).
Proper temperature control is crucial to prevent overheating, which can lead to hardware failure, reduced performance, and shortened equipment lifespan. Data centers house high-density computing equipment that generates significant amounts of heat, making effective temperature management essential for maintaining operational stability and reliability.


NEW QUESTION # 104
A technician is unable to access the internet or named network resources. The technician receives a valid IP address from the DHCP server and can ping the default gateway. Which of the following should the technician check next to resolve the issue?

  • A. Configure a static IP address.
  • B. Confirm the subnet mask is correct.
  • C. Turn off the Windows firewall.
  • D. Verify the DNS server settings.

Answer: D

Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Verify the DNS server settings. This is because the DNS server is responsible for resolving domain names to IP addresses, which is necessary for accessing the internet or named network resources. If the DNS server settings are incorrect or the DNS server is down, the technician will not be able to access these resources even if they have a valid IP address and can ping the default gateway1.
1: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 2 Objectives, page 16, section 1.10.


NEW QUESTION # 105
Which of the following commands can a technician use to get the MAC address of a Linux distribution?

  • A. ifconfig
  • B. net use
  • C. ping
  • D. netstat

Answer: A

Explanation:
The ifconfig command is a tool for configuring network interfaces that any Linux system administrator should know. It is used to bring interfaces up or down, assign and remove addresses and routes, manage ARP cache, and much more1. One of the information that ifconfig can display is the MAC address of each network interface, which is a unique identifier of the physical layer of the network device. The MAC address is usually shown as a hexadecimal string separated by colons, such as 00:0c:29:3f:5c:1f. To get the MAC address of a Linux distribution, a technician can use the ifconfig command without any arguments, which will show the details of all the active network interfaces, or specify the name of a particular interface, such as eth0 or wlan0, to show only the details of that interface.
Reference:
1: Linux Commands - CompTIA A+ 220-1102 - 1.11 - Professor Messer IT Certification Training Courses1


NEW QUESTION # 106
A technician is replacing the processor in a desktop computer prior to opening the computer, the technician wants to ensure the internal components are protected. Which of the following safety procedures would BEST protect the components in the PC? (Select TWO).

  • A. Disconnecting the computer from the power source
  • B. Ensuring proper ventilation
  • C. Removing dust from the ventilation fans
  • D. Ensuring equipment is grounded
  • E. Utilizing an ESD strap
  • F. Placing the PSU in an antistatic bag

Answer: E,F

Explanation:
Explanation
The two safety procedures that would best protect the components in the PC are:
Utilizing an ESD strap
Placing the PSU in an antistatic bag
https://www.professormesser.com/free-a-plus-training/220-902/computer-safety-procedures-2/
https://www.skillsoft.com/course/comptia-a-core-2-safety-procedures-environmental-impacts-cbdf0f2c-61c0-4f4


NEW QUESTION # 107
A hotel's Wi-Fi was used to steal information on a corporate laptop. A technician notes the following security log:
SRC: 192.168.1.1/secrets.zip Protocol SMB >> DST: 192.168.1.50/capture
The technician analyses the following Windows firewall information:

Which of the following protocols most likely allowed the data theft to occur?

  • A. 0
  • B. 1
  • C. 2
  • D. 3

Answer: D

Explanation:
The protocol that most likely allowed the data theft to occur is SMB over TCP port 445. SMB is a network file sharing protocol that enables access to files, printers, and other resources on a network. Port 445 is used by SMB to communicate directly over TCP without the need for NetBIOS, which is an older and less secure protocol. The security log shows that the source IP address 192.168.1.1 sent a file named secrets.zip using SMB protocol to the destination IP address 192.168.1.50, which captured the file. The Windows firewall information shows that port 445 is enabled for inbound and outbound traffic, which means that it is not blocked by the firewall. Therefore, port 445 is the most likely port that was exploited by the attacker to steal the data from the corporate laptop.
References:
SMB port number: Ports 445, 139, 138, and 137 explained1
What is an SMB Port + Ports 445 and 139 Explained2
CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 2 Objectives3


NEW QUESTION # 108
A technician is setting up a backup method on a workstation that only requires two sets of tapes to restore.
Which of the following would BEST accomplish this task?

  • A. Full backup
  • B. Differential backup
  • C. Off-site backup
  • D. Incremental backup

Answer: A

Explanation:
A full backup involves creating a copy of all data on the workstation, including system files and user-created data, and storing it on a set of tapes. This ensures that all data is backed up, and ensures that the data can be restored in the event of a system failure or data loss.


NEW QUESTION # 109
A technician is investigating an employee's smartphone that has the following symptoms
* The device is hot even when it is not in use.
*Applications crash, especially when others are launched.
* Certain applications, such as GPS, are in portrait mode when they should be in landscape mode.
Which of the following can the technician do to MOST likely resolve these issues with minimal impact?
(Select TWO).

  • A. Reinstall the applications that have crashed.
  • B. Update the device's operating system
  • C. Turn on autorotation
  • D. Activate airplane mode.
  • E. Perform a factory reset
  • F. Close unnecessary applications

Answer: C,F

Explanation:
Explanation
The technician can close unnecessary applications and turn on autorotation to resolve these issues with minimal impact. Autorotation can help the device to switch between portrait and landscape modes automatically. Closing unnecessary applications can help to free up the device's memory and reduce the device's temperature1


NEW QUESTION # 110
A user receives an error message from an online banking site that states the following:
Your connection is not private. Authority invalid.
Which of the following actions should the user take NEXT?

  • A. Proceed to the site.
  • B. Report the error to the bank.
  • C. Use a different browser.
  • D. Reinstall the browser.

Answer: B

Explanation:
The error message "Your connection is not private. Authority invalid." means that the web browser cannot verify the identity or security of the website's SSL certificate. This could indicate that the website has been compromised, has a configuration error, or has an expired or invalid certificate. The user should not proceed to the site or use a different browser, as this could expose their sensitive information to potential attackers. The user should also not reinstall the browser, as this is unlikely to fix the error and could cause data loss. The best action for the user to take is to report the error to the bank and wait for them to resolve it.
References: : How to Fix "Your Connection Is Not Private" Errors
(https://www.howtogeek.com/874436/how-to-fix-your-connection-is-not-private-errors/) : Fix connection errors (https://support.google.com/chrome/answer/6098869?hl=en)


NEW QUESTION # 111
A user is setting up a computer for the first time and would like to create a secondary login with permissions that are different than the primary login. The secondary login will need to be protected from certain content such as games and websites. Which of the following Windows settings should the user utilize to create the secondary login?

  • A. Shared resources
  • B. Personalization
  • C. Privacy
  • D. Accounts

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
To create a secondary login with different permissions in Windows 10, the user should utilize the Accounts setting. Here are the steps to create a new user account with different permissions:
Right-click the Windows Start menu button.
Select Control Panel.
Select User Accounts.
Select Manage another account.
Select Add a new user in PC settings.
Use the Accounts dialog box to configure a new account.


NEW QUESTION # 112
A technician is securing a new Windows 10 workstation and wants to enable a Screensaver lock. Which of the following options in the Windows settings should the technician use?

  • A. Personalization
  • B. Update and Security
  • C. Ease of Access
  • D. Privacy

Answer: A

Explanation:
The technician should use the Personalization option in the Windows settings to enable a Screensaver lock.
The Personalization option allows users to customize the appearance and behavior of their desktop, such as themes, colors, backgrounds, lock screen and screensaver. The technician can enable a Screensaver lock by choosing a screensaver from the drop-down menu, setting a wait time in minutes and checking the box that says "On resume, display logon screen". This will lock the computer and require a password or PIN to log back in after the screensaver is activated. Ease of Access is an option in the Windows settings that allows users to adjust accessibility features and settings, such as narrator, magnifier, high contrast and keyboard shortcuts.
Ease of Access is not related to enabling a Screensaver lock. Privacy is an option in the Windows settings that allows users to manage privacy and security settings, such as location, camera, microphone and app permissions. Privacy is not related to enabling a Screensaver lock. Update and Security is an option in the Windows settings that allows users to check and install updates, troubleshoot problems, backup files and restore system. Update and Security is not related to enabling a Screensaver lock. References: CompTIA A+ Core 2 (220-1002) Certification Exam Objectives Version 4.0, Domain 1.7


NEW QUESTION # 113
A technician is upgrading the backup system for documents at a high-volume law firm. The current backup system can retain no more than three versions of full backups before failing. The law firm is not concerned about restore times but asks the technician to retain more versions when possible. Which of the following backup methods should the technician MOST likely implement?

  • A. Mirror
  • B. Differential
  • C. Incremental
  • D. Full

Answer: C

Explanation:
Incremental backup is a backup method that only backs up the files that have changed since the last backup, whether it was a full or an incremental backup. Incremental backup can save storage space and bandwidth, as it does not copy the same files over and over again. Incremental backup can also retain more versions of backups, as it only stores the changes made to the files. However, incremental backup can have longer restore times, as it requires restoring the last full backup and all the subsequent incremental backups in order to recover the data. The law firm is not concerned about restore times but asks the technician to retain more versions when possible, so incremental backup would be a suitable choice for them.


NEW QUESTION # 114
......


Earning the CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 2 certification demonstrates to employers and clients that you have the necessary skills and knowledge to provide technical support and troubleshoot common IT issues. CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 2 certification is recognized globally and is widely respected in the industry. Additionally, obtaining the CompTIA A+ certification can lead to other career opportunities, such as becoming a network administrator, help desk technician, or technical support specialist.

 

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