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PRMIA Credit and Counterparty Manager (CCRM) Certificate Sample Questions:

1. What is the 1-day VaR at the 99% confidence interval for a cash flow of $10m due in 6 months time? The risk free interest rate is 5% per annum and its annual volatility is 15%. Assume a 250 day year.

A) 5500
B) 1744500
C) 85123
D) 109031

2. Which of the following is not a tool available to financial institutions for managing credit risk:

A) Cumulative accuracy plot
B) Collateral
C) Credit derivatives
D) Third party guarantees

3. Company A issues bonds with a face value of $100m, sold at issuance at $98. Bank B holds $10m in face of these bonds acquired at a price of $70. What is Bank B's exposure to the debt issued by Company A?

A) $9.8m
B) $6.86m
C) $10m
D) $7m

4. Which of the following statements is correct?

A) Market liquidity risks present themselves in the form of higher bid offer spreads
B) Market liquidity risk is idiosyncratic while funding liquidity risk is not
C) Dynamic simulations of liquidity needs require an assumption of counterparty risk remaining constant
D) Funding liquidity risks present themselves in the form of an adverse market impact on prices from a trade

5. A derivative contract has a negative current replacement value. Which of the following statements is true about its loan equivalent value for credit risk calculations over a 2-year horizon?

A) The current exposure can be used for loan equivalence calculations as that is an unbiased proxy for the future value.
B) The notional value of the derivatives contract should be used for loan equivalence calculations.
C) Since the derivatives contract has a negative current replacement value, exposure will be zero.
D) The credit exposure will be a given quintile of the expected distribution of the value of the derivatives contract in the future.

Solutions: