(2026) PASS 112-57 Exam Free Practice Test with 100% Accurate Answers [Q41-Q57]

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(2026) PASS 112-57 Exam Free Practice Test with 100% Accurate Answers

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NEW QUESTION # 41
Jack, a forensic investigator, was appointed to investigate a Windows-based security incident. In this process, he employed an Autopsy tool to recover the deleted files from unallocated space, which helps in gathering potential evidence.
Which of the following functions of Autopsy helped Jack recover the deleted files?

  • A. Timeline analysis
  • B. Multimedia
  • C. Data carving
  • D. Web artifacts

Answer: C

Explanation:
When a file is deleted on common file systems, the operating system typically removes the directory reference and marks the previously used clusters/blocks asunallocated, but the underlying file content may remain on disk until it is overwritten. Digital forensics procedures emphasize that recovering such deleted content often requires examining unallocated space rather than relying only on file system metadata.Autopsy's "Data Carving"function is specifically intended for this purpose: it scans unallocated space (and sometimes slack space) forfile signatures(headers/footers and internal structure patterns) and reconstructs recoverable files even when the original filename, path, or metadata is missing.
This directly matches the scenario: Jack recovered deleted files fromunallocated space, which is the classic use case for carving. The other options in Autopsy support different investigative goals.Timeline analysiscorrelates timestamps from multiple artifacts to reconstruct sequences of activity, but it does not itself reconstruct deleted file content from raw disk areas.Web artifactsfocuses on browser history, downloads, cookies, and related traces.Multimediahelps categorize and analyze media files (e.g., images/videos), but it is not the primary mechanism for recovering deleted data from unallocated space. Therefore, the Autopsy function that enabled the recovery described isData carving (D)


NEW QUESTION # 42
Bob, a forensic investigator, was instructed to review a Windows machine and identify any anonymous activities performed using it. In this process, Bob used the command "netstat -ano" to view all the active connections in the system and determined that the connections established by the Tor browser were closed.
Which of the following states of the connections established by Tor indicates that the Tor browser is closed?

  • A. TIME_WAIT
  • B. LISTENING
  • C. ESTABLISHED
  • D. CLOSE_WAIT

Answer: A

Explanation:
In Windows network forensics,netstat -anois commonly used to correlateTCP connection stateswithprocess identifiers (PIDs)to understand which application created or used a connection. When Tor Browser is actively communicating, outbound circuits typically appear asESTABLISHEDconnections to Tor relays (entry/guard nodes) or local loopback endpoints used by Tor components. After the browser is closed and the application tears down connections, Windows TCP/IP behavior often leaves recently closed sockets inTIME_WAIT.
TIME_WAITis a normal TCP state that appears after a connection has been actively closed. It exists to ensure delayed packets from the old session are not misinterpreted as belonging to a new session and to allow proper retransmission of the final ACK if needed. From an investigative standpoint, seeing Tor-related endpoints transition from ESTABLISHED toTIME_WAITstrongly indicates the sessions were terminated and the application is no longer maintaining live network traffic.
By contrast,CLOSE_WAITusually means the remote side has closed but the local application has not fully closed its socket yet,LISTENINGindicates a service waiting for inbound connections, andESTABLISHEDmeans the session is still active. Therefore,TIME_WAIT (B)best indicates Tor Browser connections have been closed.


NEW QUESTION # 43
Sam is working as a loan agent for a financial institution. He frequently receives a number of emails from clients providing their personal details for loan approval. As these emails contain sensitive data, Sam had set up a feature that directly downloads the emails on his device without storing a copy on the mail server. Which of the following protocols provides the above-discussed email features?

  • A. SHA-1
  • B. SNMP
  • C. POP3
  • D. ICMP

Answer: C

Explanation:
The scenario describes an email-retrieval configuration in which messages aredownloaded to a client device andnot retained on the server. This behavior aligns withPOP3 (Post Office Protocol v3), a legacy but widely referenced mail access protocol that retrieves email from a server mailbox to a local client. In standard POP3 operation, the client authenticates to the mail server, issues retrieval commands (e.g., to list and download messages), and may then issue a delete command so that downloaded messages are removed from the server mailbox. Digital forensics references commonly contrast POP3 with IMAP:IMAP is designed for server-side mailbox synchronization and typically leaves mail stored on the server, whereas POP3 is oriented towardclient-side storageand supports workflows where server copies are not preserved after download. The other options are unrelated to email retrieval:SHA-1is a cryptographic hash function used for integrity checks,ICMPsupports network diagnostics and control messaging, andSNMPis used for network device management and monitoring. From an investigative standpoint, POP3 usage can reduce server-resident evidence and shift evidentiary value tolocal artifacts(mail client databases, cache, OS traces, backups), which is consistent with the intent described in the question.


NEW QUESTION # 44
Bob, a professional hacker, targeted an organization to launch attacks. Bob gathered information such as network topology and a list of live hosts. Based on the collected information, he launched further attacks over the organization's network.
Identify the type of network attack Bob initiated on the target organization in the above scenario.

  • A. Buffer overflow
  • B. Data modification
  • C. Session hijacking
  • D. Enumeration

Answer: D

Explanation:
The activity described-collectingnetwork topologydetails and compiling alist of live hosts-matches the reconnaissance phase commonly referred to asenumeration. In digital forensics and incident response documentation, enumeration is the systematic process of discovering and extracting information about a target environment to support later exploitation. It typically follows (or overlaps with) scanning and includes identifying active IP addresses, reachable systems, open ports/services, device roles, OS fingerprints, domain information, shared resources, user/group details, and routing or segmentation clues that reveal how the network is structured.
This information is then used to plan "further attacks," such as targeting exposed services, choosing exploit paths, locating high-value systems, and selecting lateral movement routes. From a forensic standpoint, enumeration attempts often leave traces in firewall logs, IDS alerts, and endpoint artifacts (e.g., bursts of connection attempts across many hosts/ports, ICMP echo sweeps, ARP discovery on local segments, and repeated DNS queries).
The other options do not fit:data modificationinvolves altering data integrity;session hijackingtargets active sessions/tokens; andbuffer overflowis an exploitation technique against vulnerable software, not the information-gathering step described. Therefore, the correct answer isEnumeration (B)


NEW QUESTION # 45
Which of the following layers of the TCP/IP model includes protocols such as Frame Relay, SMDS, Fast Ethernet, SLIP, PPP, FDDI, ATM, Ethernet, and ARP to enable a machine to deliver the desired data to other hosts in the same network?

  • A. Transport layer
  • B. Network access layer
  • C. Application layer
  • D. Internet layer

Answer: B

Explanation:
The protocols listed-Frame Relay, SMDS, Fast Ethernet, SLIP, PPP, FDDI, ATM, Ethernet, and ARP- belong to the portion of the TCP/IP model responsible forlocal network deliveryand direct interaction with the physical media and link-layer addressing. In TCP/IP terminology, this is theNetwork Access layer(also called the Link layer or Network Interface layer). It combines functions that map closely to the OSIData LinkandPhysicallayers.
This layer is essential for delivering frames within the same network segment because it governs how devices access the medium (e.g., Ethernet), how frames are formatted and transmitted, and how hardware addressing works.ARP (Address Resolution Protocol)is especially important here: it resolvesIP addresses to MAC addressesso that an IP packet can be encapsulated into a link-layer frame and delivered to the correct local host or next-hop gateway. Technologies like PPP/SLIP support point-to-point links, while Frame Relay/ATM represent WAN/link technologies, all of which still sit under IP and provide the mechanisms for moving data across the immediate network path.
TheInternet layerhandles IP routing between networks, theTransport layerprovides end-to-end host communications (TCP/UDP), and theApplication layerprovides user protocols. Therefore, the correct layer isNetwork access layer (A).


NEW QUESTION # 46
Benoy, a security professional at an organization, extracted Apache access log entries to view critical information about all the operations performed on a web server. The Apache access log extracted by Benoy is given below:
"10.10.10.10 - Jason [17/Aug/2019:00:12:34 +0300] "GET /images/content/bg_body_1.jpg HTTP/1.0" 500
1458"
Identify the HTTP status code in the Apache access log entry above that indicates the response was successful.

  • A. 0
  • B. +0300
  • C. 1
  • D. 1.0

Answer: C

Explanation:
In the Apache Combined/Custom access log format, the value immediately after the quoted request (here," GET ... HTTP/1.0") is theHTTP status codereturned by the server. In the provided entry, that field is500.
From a forensic analysis standpoint, recognizing field positions matters because investigators correlate client IPs, timestamps, requested resources, and server outcomes to reconstruct attack timelines and identify failed exploitation attempts or misconfigurations.
It is important to note thatsuccessful HTTP responses are typically in the 2xx range, most commonly200 (OK), while3xxindicates redirects,4xxindicates client-side errors (such as 404 Not Found), and5xxindicates server-side failures. Specifically,500represents anInternal Server Error, meaning the server encountered an unexpected condition and could not fulfill the request successfully.
The other options are not HTTP status codes in this entry:+0300is the timezone offset in the timestamp,1.0is the HTTP protocol version, and2019is part of the date. Therefore, the only HTTP status code present-and the correct choice among the options-is500 (B), even though it reflects an error rather than success.


NEW QUESTION # 47
Clark, a security professional, identified that one of the systems in the organization is infected with malware and was used for creating a backdoor. Clark employed an automated tool to analyze the system's memory and detect malicious activities performed on the system.
In the above scenario, which of the following tools did Clark employ to detect malicious activities performed on the system?

  • A. Redline
  • B. Wireshark
  • C. Medusa
  • D. Shodan

Answer: A

Explanation:
The question specifies anautomated tool to analyze the system's memoryand detect malicious activity associated with amalware backdoor. In malware forensics and incident response practice, memory analysis is used to identify artifacts that may not be reliably visible on disk, such as injected code, hidden processes, suspicious DLLs/modules, live network connections, persistence objects loaded in memory, and indicators of compromise tied to backdoors.Redline(commonly referenced in DFIR training) is purpose-built forhost investigation and memory analysis. It can collect and analyze volatile data, including running processes, loaded modules, handles, drivers, network sessions, and other runtime indicators that help investigators spot malicious behavior and attribute it to specific executables or injected components.
The other options do not align with memory forensics.Medusais primarily a credential brute-force/login auditing tool, not a memory analysis utility.Shodanis an Internet-wide device search engine used for external reconnaissance, not for local host RAM inspection.Wiresharkis a packet capture and protocol analysis tool focused on network traffic, not automated memory artifact collection and analysis. Therefore, the tool Clark used to analyze memory and detect malicious activity isRedline (B).


NEW QUESTION # 48
Which of the following data acquisition formats supports the Lempel-Ziv-Markov chain (LZMA) algorithm for compression?

  • A. Advanced ForensicFramework 4
  • B. Proprietary Format
  • C. Advanced Forensics Format
  • D. Raw Format

Answer: A

Explanation:
In digital forensics, acquisition formats differ mainly in how they store evidence data, metadata, and whether they support features like compression, segmentation, and integrity verification. ARaw formatis a sector-by- sector bitstream image (often called "dd" style) and typically doesnotdefine built-in compression or structured metadata; any compression would be external to the format. "Proprietary format" is not a single defined standard-some proprietary images may compress data, but the option is too generic and not tied to a specific, documented compression method.
The format known in forensic documentation for explicitly supporting modern compression such asLZMAisAFF4 (Advanced Forensic Format 4), which is designed as a next-generation container supporting rich metadata, hashing, chunked storage, and pluggable compression options. AFF4's architecture stores evidence in compressed chunks/streams and commonly associates LZMA with efficient, high-ratio compression while preserving forensic requirements such as repeatable verification through cryptographic hashes.
The option "Advanced ForensicFramework 4" corresponds toAFF4in many exam question banks and training materials. Therefore, the correct choice isC, because AFF4 is the acquisition format recognized for supportingLZMA compressionas part of its standardized capabilities.


NEW QUESTION # 49
Which of the following tools helps a forensics investigator develop and test across multiple operating systems in a virtual machine for Mac and allows access to Microsoft Office for Windows?

  • A. NetSim
  • B. Parallels Desktop 16
  • C. Riverbed Modeler
  • D. Camtasia

Answer: B

Explanation:
A common requirement in macOS-focused forensic labs is the ability to runmultiple operating systemson a single Mac for controlled testing, malware detonation in a sandbox, reproduction of user activity, and validation of artifacts across platforms. This is typically achieved throughdesktop virtualization, where a hypervisor hosts guest operating systems (such as Windows and various Linux distributions) inside virtual machines.Parallels Desktop 16is a Mac virtualization solution built specifically to run Windows on macOS with strong integration features (such as shared clipboard, folder sharing, and "coherence" modes that allow Windows applications to appear alongside Mac applications). This capability aligns with the question's description: developing and testing across multiple OSs in VMs on a Mac and enabling use ofMicrosoft Office for Windowswithin that Windows guest environment.
The other tools do not fit.Riverbed ModelerandNetSimare primarilynetwork modeling/simulationtools used for network design and training, not desktop virtualization.Camtasiais used forscreen recording and video editing, which can support documentation but does not provide a VM environment. Therefore, the only option that directly provides cross-OS virtual machines on macOS and supports running Windows applications like Microsoft Office isParallels Desktop 16 (B).


NEW QUESTION # 50
Which of the following folders of macOS stores all the files, documents, applications, library folders, etc.
pertaining to a particular user?

  • A. Spotlight
  • B. Home Directory
  • C. Finder
  • D. Time Machine

Answer: B

Explanation:
In macOS, each user account is assigned aHome Directorythat serves as the primary container for that user's data and profile-specific configuration. This directory typically resides under/Users/<username>/and includes standard subfolders such asDesktop,Documents,Downloads,Pictures,Movies,Music, and crucially the user' sLibraryfolder (~/Library). From a digital forensics standpoint, the Home Directory is one of the most important evidence locations because it holds user-generated content and a large volume of user activity artifacts: application preferences and settings (plist files), browser data, caches, saved state, key application databases, recent items, and other per-user traces. Although some applications are installed system-wide under
/Applications, macOS also supports per-user application storage and extensive per-user data under the Home Directory's Library structure.
The other options are not user-data containers.Spotlightis a search/indexing service (it creates indexes, not a user's complete data store).Time Machineis a backup mechanism that stores versioned backups rather than the live per-user working directory.Finderis the graphical file manager, not a storage folder. Therefore, the folder that stores files and user-specific libraries for a particular user is theHome Directory (D).


NEW QUESTION # 51
Sandra, a hacker, targeted Johana, a software professional, to steal her banking details. She started sending frequent, random pop-up messages with malicious links to her social media page. Johana accidentally clicked on a link, causing a malicious program to get installed in her system. Subsequently, when Johana attempted to access her banking website, the URL redirected her to a malicious website controlled by Sandra. Johana entered her banking credentials on the fake website, which Sandra then captured.
Identify the type of attack performed by Sandra on Johana.

  • A. Tailgating
  • B. Dumpster diving
  • C. Pharming
  • D. Shoulder surfing

Answer: C

Explanation:
The scenario describes a victim beingredirected from a legitimate banking URL to a fraudulent websitewithout intending to visit it, after malware is installed on the system. This behavior is characteristic ofpharming, an attack in which an adversarycauses redirectionto a malicious destination even when the user types the correct address or clicks a legitimate bookmark. In digital forensics references, pharming is commonly achieved by manipulatingname resolution or routing mechanisms, such as altering the localhosts file, changingDNS server settings, poisoning DNS responses, modifying browser proxy settings, or installing malware that intercepts and rewrites web requests. The key forensic indicator is that the victim's request for the real domain is transparently diverted to attacker-controlled infrastructure, where credentials are harvested through a convincing spoofed login page.
The other options do not match the redirection-and-fake-site mechanism.Tailgatingis physical access abuse (following someone into a secure area).Dumpster divinginvolves retrieving sensitive information from discarded materials.Shoulder surfingis observing credentials by watching the victim type. Because the essential action here ismalicious redirection to a fake site to steal credentials, the correct answer isPharming (A).


NEW QUESTION # 52
Philip, a forensic officer, was tasked with investigating a crime scene. In this process, he created bit-by-bit copies of the suspect drive and retrieved all the disk images using the dd command.
Which of the following data acquisition image formats is extracted by Philip in the above scenario?

  • A. Raw Format
  • B. Proprietary Format
  • C. Advanced Forensics Format (AFF)
  • D. Advanced Forensic Framework 4 (AFF4)

Answer: A

Explanation:
The UNIX/Linuxddutility performs abit-by-bit (sector-by-sector) copyfrom an input device (such as a physical disk) to an output target (another device or a flat file). In digital forensics guidance, this type of output is known as araw (bitstream) imagebecause it captures the exact sequence of bytes from the source media without embedding structured case metadata, compression, or container features by default. The resulting file is often referred to as a "dd image" and may use extensions like.ddor.img, but the key point is theformat is raw: it represents a straightforward byte-for-byte representation of the original storage, including allocated data, unallocated space, slack space, and file system structures.
By contrast,AFFandAFF4are forensic container formats designed to store evidence data along with metadata (and often support features such as chunking, compression, and richer integrity structures). "Proprietary format" refers to vendor-specific containers (for example, formats created by certain commercial forensic tools) rather than the generic output produced by dd. Since Philip specifically usedddto create bit-by-bit disk images, the extracted acquisition image format isRaw Format (A).


NEW QUESTION # 53
A disk drive has 16,384 cylinders, 80 heads, and 63 sectors per track, and each sector can store 512 bytes of data.
What is the total size of the disk?

  • A. 42,279,584,320 bytes
  • B. 43,278,584,320 bytes
  • C. 42,278,584,320 bytes
  • D. 42,278,584,340 bytes

Answer: C

Explanation:
In classic hard-disk geometry, total capacity is computed fromCHS parameters(Cylinders × Heads × Sectors per track) multiplied bybytes per sector. Forensic examiners learn this because it helps validate whether an image acquisition size is consistent with the physical disk geometry and to spot anomalies caused by misreported device geometry or capture errors.
First compute total addressable sectors:
16,384 cylinders × 80 heads = 1,310,720 tracks(because each head provides a track per cylinder).
Then multiply by sectors per track:
1,310,720 × 63 = 82,575,360 sectors.
Convert sectors to bytes using the sector size:
82,575,360 sectors × 512 bytes/sector = 42,278,584,320 bytes.
This matches optionAexactly. In practice, modern drives often use LBA and may report different logical geometries, but the forensic principle remains the same: capacity equals the number of logical blocks times the logical block size, and CHS-style values are a structured way to perform that verification.


NEW QUESTION # 54
Below is the syntax of a command-line utility that displays active TCP connections and ports on which the computer is listening.
netstat [-a] [-e] [-n] [-o] [-p Protocol] [-r] [-s] [Interval]
Identify the netstat parameter that displays active TCP connections and includes the process ID (PID) for each connection.

  • A. [-o]
  • B. [-n]
  • C. [-s]
  • D. [-a]

Answer: A

Explanation:
In Windows forensics and incident response, investigators often need to linknetwork activity(remote IPs, ports, connection states) to theresponsible processto determine whether traffic is legitimate or associated with malware, unauthorized tools, or data exfiltration. The Windowsnetstatutility can enumerate current TCP connections and listening ports, but the key flag that enables attribution to a running program is-o. The-o parameter instructs netstat to include theOwning Process ID (PID)with each connection or listening socket.
Once the PID is known, examiners can correlate it with process listings (e.g., Task Manager,tasklist, memory forensics output) to identify the executable name, path, user context, and parent process-critical steps in reconstructing attacker behavior and persistence.
The other options do not provide PID mapping:-nshows addresses and ports in numeric form (useful for speed and to avoid DNS lookups),-adisplays all connections and listening ports but without PID attribution by itself, and-sshows protocol statistics rather than per-connection ownership. Therefore, the parameter that shows active connectionsandincludes the PID for each is[-o](Option C).


NEW QUESTION # 55
Below are the elements included in the order of volatility for a typical computing system as per the RFC 3227 guidelines for evidence collection and archiving.
Archival media
Remote logging and monitoring data related to the target system
Routing table, process table, kernel statistics, and memory
Registers and processor cache
Physical configuration and network topology
Disk or other storage media
Temporary system files
Identify the correct sequence of order of volatility from the most to least volatile for a typical system.

  • A. 2-->1-->4-->3-->6-->5-->7
  • B. 4-->3-->7-->6-->2-->5-->1
  • C. 7-->5-->4-->3-->2-->6-->1
  • D. 4-->3-->7-->1-->2-->5-->6

Answer: B

Explanation:
RFC 3227's "order of volatility" principle guides responders to collect themost perishableevidence first because some data can disappear immediately when power is lost, processes terminate, or the system state changes during response actions. The most volatile items areCPU registers and processor cache (4)because they change continuously at instruction speed and are lost instantly on shutdown or context switching. Next arerouting table, process table, kernel statistics, and memory (3)because live RAM contents and active system tables can change within seconds and are lost if the machine is powered off or rebooted.
After volatile memory,temporary system files (7)are collected because they are frequently overwritten or cleaned by the OS, users, or malware. Then comesdisk or other storage media (6)which is more persistent but still subject to modification, log rotation, and overwriting through normal activity; hence imaging should occur before extensive interaction.
Less volatile still areremote logging and monitoring data (2)since they may persist off-host, but can be rotated or altered by retention policies.Physical configuration and network topology (5)generally changes less frequently and can often be re-documented later. Finally,archival media (1)is the least volatile because it is typically write-once or preserved storage. Thus the correct sequence is4#3#7#6#2#5#1 (Option B).


NEW QUESTION # 56
While investigating a web attack on a Windows-based server, Jessy executed the following command on her system:
C:> net view <\10.10.10.11>
What was Jessy's objective in running the above command?

  • A. Check whether sessions have been opened with other systems
  • B. Review file shares to ensure their purpose
  • C. Check file space usage to look for a sudden decrease in free space
  • D. Verify the users using open sessions

Answer: B

Explanation:
The Windowsnet view \\<computer>command is used to enumerateshared resources(SMB shares) that a remote Windows system is publishing. When Jessy runsnet view \\10.10.10.11, her goal is to retrieve a list of the target host's visible shares-such as administrative shares (e.g.,C$,ADMIN$) and any custom shares created for departments, applications, or users. In forensic and incident-response practice, this is important because attackers commonly use SMB shares forlateral movement,staging tools,dropping payloads, andexfiltrating data. By reviewing the shares exposed by a suspected server, the investigator can quickly identify unexpected or overly permissive shares, locate potential repositories of web content or logs, and determine whether a compromised web server is also exposing file resources that expand the attacker's options.
The other options map to different commands and artifacts: disk space usage is checked with storage utilities (notnet view), open sessions are examined with commands likenet session, and identifying users accessing files typically involvesnet fileor server auditing logs. Therefore, Jessy's objective was toreview file shareson the remote host.


NEW QUESTION # 57
......


EC-COUNCIL 112-57 Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • Dark Web Forensics: This module explains the investigation of dark web activities, including analyzing artifacts related to the Tor browser and identifying dark web usage on systems.
Topic 2
  • Malware Forensics: This module introduces malware investigation techniques, including static and dynamic analysis, and examining system and network behavior to understand malicious activity.
Topic 3
  • Defeating Anti-forensics Techniques: This module discusses anti-forensic methods used to hide or destroy evidence. It also explains techniques investigators use to detect hidden data and recover deleted or protected information.
Topic 4
  • Computer Forensics Fundamentals: This module introduces the core concepts of computer forensics, including digital evidence, forensic readiness, and the role of investigators. It also explains legal and compliance requirements involved in forensic investigations.
Topic 5
  • Linux and Mac Forensics: This module explains forensic analysis techniques for Linux and Mac systems. It focuses on analyzing system data, file systems, and memory to recover digital evidence.
Topic 6
  • Investigating Email Crimes: This module covers the basics of email systems and the process of investigating suspicious emails to identify potential cybercrime evidence.
Topic 7
  • Investigating Web Attacks: This module focuses on analyzing web application attacks through server logs and detecting malicious activities targeting web servers and applications.
Topic 8
  • Network Forensics: This module introduces network forensic concepts, including event correlation, analyzing network logs, identifying indicators of compromise, and investigating network traffic.

 

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