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CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) certification exam, also known as CS0-002, is a globally recognized certification that validates the skills required to perform intermediate-level cybersecurity analysis. CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam certification exam is designed for individuals who want to pursue a career in cybersecurity analysis, including security analysts, security operations center (SOC) analysts, and threat intelligence analysts. CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam certification exam covers a variety of topics, including threat and vulnerability management, cybersecurity toolsets, security operations and monitoring, and incident response.
NEW QUESTION # 34
A security analyst is investigating an active threat of the system memory. While narrowing down the source of the threat, the analyst is inspecting all processes to isolate suspicious activity Which of the following techniques is the analyst using?
- A. Static acquisition
- B. Timeline analysis
- C. Logical acquisition
- D. Live forensics
Answer: D
Explanation:
Live forensics is a technique that involves investigating an active threat on a system without shutting it down or altering its state, by using tools such as memory dumpers, process explorers, registry editors, or network analyzers. Live forensics can help preserve volatile data that may be lost if the system is powered off or rebooted, such as system memory, network connections, running processes, etc. Live forensics can also help identify and stop malicious activities in real time.
NEW QUESTION # 35
A company's blocklist has outgrown the current technologies in place. The ACLs are at maximum, and the IPS signatures only allow a certain amount of space for domains to be added, creating the need for multiple signatures. Which of the following configuration changes to the existing controls would be the MOST appropriate to improve performance?
- A. Review the current blocklist to determine which domains can be removed from the list and then update the ACLs
- B. Review the current blocklist and prioritize it based on the level of threat severity. Add the domains with the highest severity to the blocklist.
- C. Create an IDS for the current blocklist to determine which domains are showing activity and may need to be removed
- D. Implement a host-file-based solution that will use a list of all domains to deny for all machines on the network.
Answer: A
Explanation:
This is the most effective way to improve performance, as it allows you to reduce the amount of domains in the blocklist and reduce the size of the ACLs. By reviewing the blocklist and removing domains that are no longer active or no longer pose a threat, the blocklist can be reduced and the ACLs updated accordingly. This will reduce the amount of traffic and processing power required to manage the blocklist, and can help improve overall performance.
NEW QUESTION # 36
An analyst was testing the latest version of an internally developed CRM system. The analyst created a basic user account. Using a few tools in Kali's latest distribution, the analyst was able to access configuration files, change permissions on folders and groups, and delete and create new system objects. Which of the following techniques did the analyst use to perform these unauthorized activities?
- A. Impersonation
- B. Directory traversal
- C. Input injection
- D. Privilege escalation
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 37
An organization is moving its infrastructure to the cloud in an effort to meet the budget and reduce staffing requirements. The organization has three environments: development, testing, and production. These environments have interdependencies but must remain relatively segmented.
Which of the following methods would BEST secure the company's infrastructure and be the simplest to manage and maintain?
- A. Create one cloud account and three separate VPCs for each environment. Create security rules to allow access to and from each environment.
- B. Create one cloud account with one VPC for all environments. Purchase a virtual firewall and create granular security rules.
- C. Create three separate cloud accounts for each environment. Configure account peering and security rules to allow access to and from each environment.
- D. Create three separate cloud accounts for each environment and a single core account for network services. Route all traffic through the core account.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 38
A security analyst is correlating, ranking, and enriching raw data into a report that will be interpreted by humans or machines to draw conclusions and create actionable recommendations Which of the following steps in the intelligence cycle is the security analyst performing?
- A. Analysis and production
- B. Data collection
- C. Dissemination and evaluation
- D. Planning and direction
- E. Processing and exploitation
Answer: A
Explanation:
Analysis is a human process that turns processed information into intelligence that can inform decisions. Depending on the circumstances, the decisions might involve whether to investigate a potential threat, what actions to take immediately to block an attack, how to strengthen security controls, or how much investment in additional security resources is justified. https://www.recordedfuture.com/threat-intelligence-lifecycle-phases
NEW QUESTION # 39
A cybersecurity analyst is researching operational data to develop a script that will detect the presence of a threat on corporate assets. Which of the following contains the most useful information to produce this script?
- A. MITRE ATT&CK reports
- B. OpenloC files
- C. API documentation
- D. Protocol analysis captures
Answer: A
Explanation:
A cybersecurity analyst is researching operational data to develop a script that will detect the presence of a threat on corporate assets. The most useful information to produce this script is MITRE ATT&CK reports. MITRE ATT&CK is a knowledge base of adversary tactics and techniques based on real-world observations. MITRE ATT&CK reports provide detailed information on how different threat actors operate, what tools they use, what indicators they leave behind, and how to detect or mitigate their attacks. The other options are not as useful or relevant for this purpose. Reference: CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Objectives (CS0-002), page 9; https://attack.mitre.org/
NEW QUESTION # 40
Company A is m the process of merging with Company B As part of the merger, connectivity between the ERP systems must be established so portent financial information can be shared between the two entitles. Which of the following will establish a more automated approach to secure data transfers between the two entities?
- A. Set up a VPN between Company A and Company B. granting access only lo the ERPs within the connection
- B. Create static NATs on each entity's firewalls that map lo the ERP systems and use native ERP authentication to allow access.
- C. Set up an FTP server that both companies can access and export the required financial data to a folder.
- D. Set up a PKI between Company A and Company B and Intermediate shared certificates between the two entities
Answer: D
Explanation:
The security analyst should set up a PKI (Public Key Infrastructure) between Company A and Company B and exchange shared certificates between the two entities. This will allow them to establish a more automated approach to secure data transfers between their ERP systems. A PKI is a system that provides encryption and authentication services using public key cryptography. A PKI consists of certificates, certificate authorities (CAs), and other components that enable users to securely exchange data over untrusted networks. By exchanging shared certificates between Company A and Company B, they can verify each other's identity and encrypt their data using public and private keys.
NEW QUESTION # 41
SIMULATION
Malware is suspected on a server in the environment.
The analyst is provided with the output of commands from servers in the environment and needs to review all output files in order to determine which process running on one of the servers may be malware.
INSTRUCTIONS
Servers 1, 2, and 4 are clickable. Select the Server and the process that host the malware.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Answer:
Explanation:
Server 4, svchost.exe
NEW QUESTION # 42
A security analyst is reviewing a web application. If an unauthenticated user tries to access a page in the application, the user is redirected to the login page. After successful authentication, the user is then redirected
back to the original page. Some users have reported receiving phishing emails with a link that takes them to the application login page but then redirects to a fake login page after successful authentication.
Which of the following will remediate this software vulnerability?
- A. Deploy a WAF in front of the web application.
- B. Implement email filtering with anti-phishing protection.
- C. Check for and enforce the proper domain for the redirect.
- D. Use a parameterized query to check the credentials.
- E. Enforce unique session IDs for the application.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 43
A security analyst is reviewing the following log from an email security service.
Which of the following BEST describes the reason why the email was blocked?
- A. The IP address was blacklisted.
- B. The To address is invalid.
- C. The From address is invalid.
- D. The IP address and the remote server name are the same.
- E. The email originated from the www.spamfilter.org URL.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 44
A security analyst is researching an incident and uncovers several details that may link to other incidents. The security analyst wants to determine if other incidents are related to the current incident Which of the followinq threat research methodoloqies would be MOST appropriate for the analyst to use?
- A. CVSS score
- B. Behavioral analysis
- C. Reputation data
- D. Risk assessment
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 45
The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) has asked the security analyst to examine abnormally high processor utilization on a key server. The output below is from the company's research and development (R&D) server.
Which of the following actions should the security analyst take FIRST?
- A. Determine availability
- B. Initiate an investigation
- C. Reimage the server
- D. Isolate the R&D server
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 46
The Chief information Officer of a large cloud software vendor reports that many employees are falling victim to phishing emails because they appear to come from other employees. Which of the following would BEST prevent this issue
- A. Induce digital signatures on messages originating within the company.
- B. Implement DKIM to perform authentication that will prevent this Issue.
- C. Set up an email analysis solution that looks for known malicious Iinks within the email.
- D. Require users authenticate to the SMTP server
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 47
Management wants to scan servers for vulnerabilities on a periodic basis. Management has decided that the scan frequency should be determined only by vendor patch schedules and the organization's application deployment schedule. Which of the following would force the organization to conduct an out-of- cycle vulnerability scan?
- A. A vendor releases a critical patch update
- B. Newly discovered PII on a server
- C. False positives identified in production
- D. A critical bug fix in the organization's application
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 48
While reviewing log files, a security analyst uncovers a brute-force attack that is being performed against an external webmail portal. Which of the following would be BEST to prevent this type of attack from beinq successful?
- A. Alter the lockout policy to ensure users are permanently locked out after five attempts.
- B. Create a new rule in the IDS that triggers an alert on repeated login attempts
- C. Implement MFA on the email portal using out-of-band code delivery.
- D. Leverage password filters to prevent weak passwords on employee accounts from being exploited.
- E. Configure a WAF with brute force protection rules in block mode
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 49
Who is the best facilitator for a post-incident lessons-learned session?
- A. CSIRT leader
- B. First responder
- C. Independent facilitator
- D. CEO
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 50
Some hard disks need to be taken as evidence for further analysis during an incident response Which of the following procedures must be completed FIRST for this type of evtdertce acquisition?
- A. Build the chain-of-custody document, noting the media model senal number size vendor, date, and time of acquisition
- B. Execute the command #dd if=/dev/ada of=/dev/adc ba=5i2 to clone the evidence data to external media to prevent any further change
- C. Extract the hard drives from the compromised machines and then plug them into a forensics machine to apply encryption over the stored data to protect it from non-authorized access
- D. Perform a disk sanitation using the command 8dd if=/daT/zaro of=/daT/adc ba=iM over the media that wil receive a copy of the coHected data
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 51
While planning segmentation for an ICS environment, a security engineer determines IT resources will need access to devices within the ICS environment without compromising security.
To provide the MOST secure access model in this scenario, the jumpbox should be .
- A. placed on the IT side of the network, authenticated, and tunneled into the ICS environment.
- B. bridged between the IT and operational technology networks to allow authenticated access.
- C. placed in an isolated network segment, authenticated on the IT side, and forwarded into the ICS network.
- D. placed on the ICS network with a static firewall rule that allows IT network resources to authenticate.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 52
When reviewing network traffic, a security analyst detects suspicious activity:
Based on the log above, which of the following vulnerability attacks is occurring?
- A. POODLE
- B. Zeus
- C. ShellShock
- D. DROWN
- E. Heartbleed
Answer: A
Explanation:
The DROWN (Decrypting RSA with Obsolete and Weakened eNcryption) attack is a cross- protocol security bug that attacks servers supporting modern TLS protocol suites by using their support for the obsolete, insecure, SSL v2 protocol to leverage an attack on connections using up-to-date protocols that would otherwise be secure.DROWN can affect all types of servers that offer services encrypted with TLS yet still support SSLv2, provided they share the same public key credentials between the two protocols. Additionally, if the same public key certificate is used on a different server that supports SSLv2, the TLS server is also vulnerable due to the SSLv2 server leaking key information that can be used against the TLS server.
NEW QUESTION # 53
A security analyst is building a malware analysis lab. The analyst wants to ensure malicious applications are not capable of escaping the virtual machines and pivoting to other networks.
To BEST mitigate this risk, the analyst should use .
- A. an 802.11ac wireless bridge to create an air gap.
- B. a firewall to isolate the lab network from all other networks.
- C. an unmanaged switch to segment the environments from one another.
- D. a managed switch to segment the lab into a separate VLAN.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 54
A company wants to establish a threat-hunting team. Which of the following BEST describes the rationale for integrating intelligence into hunt operations?
- A. It supports rapid response and recovery during and following an incident
- B. It allows analysts to receive routine updates on newly discovered software vulnerabilities
- C. It provides criticality analyses for key enterprise servers and services
- D. It enables the team to prioritize the focus areas and tactics within the company's environment
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
NEW QUESTION # 55
Which of the following would a security engineer recommend to BEST protect sensitive system data from being accessed on mobile devices?
- A. Implement a self-encrypted disk.
- B. Enable Secure Boot using TPM
- C. Configure filesystem encryption
- D. Use a UEFl boot password.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 56
Which of the following sources would a security analyst rely on to provide relevant and timely threat information concerning the financial services industry?
- A. Common vulnerability and exposure bulletins
- B. Open-source intelligence, such as social media and blogs
- C. Real-time and automated firewall rules subscriptions
- D. Information sharing and analysis membership
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 57
A development team recently released a new version of a public-facing website for testing prior to production. The development team is soliciting the help of various teams to validate the functionality of the website due to its high visibility. Which of the following activities best describes the process the development team is initiating?
- A. User acceptance testing
- B. Static analysis
- C. Code review
- D. Stress testing
Answer: A
Explanation:
User acceptance testing is a process of verifying that a software application meets the requirements and expectations of the end users before it is released to production. User acceptance testing can help to validate the functionality, usability, performance and compatibility of the software application with real-world scenarios and feedback . User acceptance testing can involve various teams, such as developers, testers, customers and stakeholders.
NEW QUESTION # 58
A security analyst suspects a malware infection was caused by a user who downloaded malware after clicking
http://<malwaresource>/A.php in a phishing email.
To prevent other computers from being infected by the same malware variation, the analyst should create a rule on the .
- A. firewall to block connection attempts to dynamic DNS hosts.
- B. proxy to block all connections to <malwaresource>.
- C. email server that automatically deletes attached executables.
- D. IDS to match the malware sample.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 59
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